BMS 300: FINAL EXAM
107 Cards in this Set
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In _1__, a semiconservative process, the enzymatic activity of _2___ breaks the hydrogen bonds between __3___. Then, the _4__ moves from the 3' to the 5' ends, resulting in fragments of DNA hydrogen bonded to the __5__ that must be connected.
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DNA replication
Helicase
Nitrogenous
DNA polymerase
Lagging strand
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The code for each individual amino acid is found in the __1__ on the mRNA. A protein's primary structure consists of a specific series of__2__. These molecules are joined together by the enzymatic activity of __3_, which removes a molecule of water to form a __4__. Moreover, structures su…
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codon
amino acids
the large ribosomal subunit
peptide bond
Hydrogen bonding
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Cells in the hypothalamus, secrete releasing hormones into the portal vasculature that connects the hypothalamus to the anterior pituitary where they bind to troph cells. The releasing hormones are ___ hormones that bind to ____ receptors on the troph cells.
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peptide; G protein coupled
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The types of cartilage are differentiated from one another by:
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the type and mix of extracellular proteins in the extracellular matrix
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The major intracellular protein polymer that is found in cells that are active in the initial steps of Vitamin D production is:
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Keratin
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At an archeoligical site you find a human long bone (femur) where the epiphysis and diaphysis are completely seperated. You conclude that the age of death of this individual is between ___ and ___ years old.
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5 and 10 years old
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Although we have not yet talked about muscle cells in the heart, these cells are connected to one another at sites called intercalated disks. The cell junctions that resist the shear forces generated during muscle contration and hold the cells to one another are the ______.
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desmosomes
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Oxytocin and vasopressin, which are synthesized in the neuronal cell bodies in the hypothalamus, are transported to the site where they are released in the posterior pituitary in ____ on ____ by _____.
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vesicles; microtubules; kinesin
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Binding of a hormone to the receptor depicted in the accompanying figure would cause this protein to bind __________ near its carboxy terminus.
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a trimeric GTP binding protein
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The characteristic of the three amino acids that can be phosphorylated by a kinase is that the R groups of these amino acids all contain:
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an OH (alcohol) group
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Which of the following would you expect to have no glycosylated amino acids?
a. a receptor tyrosine kinase
b. a G-protein coupled receptor
c. a steroid hormone receptor
d. a peptide hormone receptor
e. all except c are correct
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C. a steroid hormone receptor
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Disrupting the structure of the _______ , which are cytoskeletal protein polymers, would disrupt the structural substrate for moving vesicles with the ATPase, cytoplasmic myosin.
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filamentous or F actin
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Which of the following is characteristic of eukaryotes, but not prokaryotes?
a. DNA replication
b. protein synthesis
c. transcription
d. most ATP production found in a membrane bound compartment
e. guanosine triphosphate
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d. most ATP production found in a membrane bound compartment
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A label that permits the visualization of phosphodiester bonds linking 5-carbon sugars together would be seen most prominately in the:
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nucleus and ribosomes
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The region of DNA that signifies the site to begin reading a gene is the:
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promoter
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From the list below, choose the one that is NOT directly dependent on hydrogen bonding:
a. binding purines to pyramidines in DNA
b. maintaining water liquid at room temperature at sea level.
c. holding the signal peptide to the signal recognition particle.
d. binding of the co…
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C. holding the signal peptide to the signal recognition particle
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Two solutions are separated by a membrane that contains only channels permeable to water (aquaporins). The solution in the left-hand compartment contains 50 millimolar NaCl, which dissociates completely, and the right hand compartment contains 100 millimolar urea which is a small, charged…
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A. Water will not flow because osmotic forces are balanced
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An experiment is performed in which the sequence of bases coding for the signal peptide is deleted from an mRNA molecule that codes for integrins in epithelial cells. When this mRNA is expressed in a cell, the resulting protein would be expected to be found:
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in the cytoplasm
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Cellular enzymes that function best at low pH (high acid concentration) are typically:
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lysosomal proteins
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Which of the following is (are) synthesized on rough endoplasmic reticulum?
a. tubulin
b. actin
c. connexins
d. kinesin
e. All of the above.
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C. connexins
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29. Androgens are released from the testes and ovaries as a direct response to which of the following?
a. A releasing hormone, such as GnRH, released from an exocrine gland
b. A stimulating hormone, such as LH or FSH, released from an endocrine gland
c. A releasing hormone, such …
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B. a stimulating hormone, such as GnRH, released from an exocrine gland
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You are a doctor, and your patient suffers from hirsutism. You are concerned that her ovarian tumor may be a carcinoma. What does this mean?
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It is composed of epithelial cells that may become metastatic and her ovarian tissues may lose their attachment to the basal lamina
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How might androgens inhibit hair growth?
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by remaining dissolved in the sebum
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32. GnRH is a hormone that acts on cells in the pituitary gland, causing them to release LH. This hormone, in turn, causes the ovaries to secrete androgens. When examining the blood of a patient with hirsutisim, which of the following observations could be made?
a. High levels of GnRH …
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D. Low levels of GnRH and low levels of LH
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The specific three dimensional shape of 5α reductase is due mostly to which of the following?
a. Testosterone’s hydrophilic nature
b. Dehydration synthesis during peptide bond formation
c. Hydrogen bonding between amine and the carboxy groups
d. R-group interactions
e. The …
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D. R-group interacions
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Suppose you are a doctor, and your patient suffers from acute mucolipidosis. If you examined a sample of the patient’s blood, what would you expect to find?
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a high concentration of hydrolytic enzymes
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Phosphotransferase spans the phospholipid bilayer of the Golgi apparatus. The mRNA that codes for this enzyme includes:
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includes codons used to translate a signal peptide
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Suppose a researcher designs a peptide hormone-like drug to treat I-Cell disease. Which of the following statements best describe this drug’s mechanism of action?
a. The drug would bind to a receptor that also has a DNA binding domain
b. The drug may affect an ion channel
c. The …
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E. The drug may affect an ion channel and the drug may cause a cAMP-mediates econd messenger cascade
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If the receptor for the drug mentioned in the previous question has a Kd of 10-3 M (millimolar), the receptor has a ________ affinity for the drug. So, a __________ drug concentration is required to exert an effect on the cell.
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low; high
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During synaptic transmission in the CNS, excess _____1_____ may be taken up by _____2_____. Other glial cells include _______3_______, which myelinate axons in the spinal cord, and Schwann cells, which provide myelination in the ______4_____. Myelination _____5________, or ability to sepa…
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Glutamate, GABA, Acetylcholine, Glycine
Astrocytes
Oligodendrocytes
Spinal nerves
Decreases capacitance
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During the course of generating _____1_____ in neurons, depolarization is caused by the opening of _____2_____. When these channels inactivate, the membrane potential _____3______, a process greatly facilitated by ______4_______. After a brief period of hyperpolarization, the membrane wil…
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action potentials
voltage-gated sodium channels
repolarizes
delayed rectifiers and voltage-gated K+ channels
The potassium equilibrium potential
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In the myotatic reflex arc, _______________ are produced in the input region of the primary sensory afferent when ____________ open.
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generator potentials; stretch-activated channels
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A tumor that affects only the ventral (anterior) region of the spinal cord on the right side and interrupts ascending pathways only in that region would be expected to affect:
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pain and temperature sensation from the left side of the body
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You would predict that electrical stimulation of two neighboring neurons in the left precentral gyrus would cause:
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muscle contrations in nearly the same region on the right side of the body
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The mu conotoxins specifically block the voltage-gated Na+ channels in skeletal muscle cells. The effect of this toxin is to prevent:
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the release of Ca2+ from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
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The role of the calcium ATPase in the sarcoplasmic reticulum is to cause muscle relaxation by:
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removing Ca2+ from the sarcoplasm and returning it to the SR
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In some neurodegenerative disease, lower motor neurons die and vacate the neuromuscular synapse. The axon terminals of surviving motor neurons sprout and innervate the vacated sites. You would expect the motor units to become ____ and dexterity to ____.
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larger; decrease
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In the myotatic reflex arc, the primary sensory afferent of a stretch receptor neuron forms synapses on:
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a lower motor neuron and an inhibitory neuron
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Cell bodies of ______, which are also known as _______, are found in the _______.
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lower motor neurons; somatic efferents; ventral horn of the spinal cord
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The information carried by action potentials is encoded by:
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the number and frequency of action potentials in a series
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In the central nervous system, there are proteins called sodium-driven cotransporters that bind a Na+ ion and a molecule of the neurotransmitter glutamate in the extracellular space. You would expect to find these proteins most commonly expressed in the plasma membranes of:
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astrocytes at synapses in the CNS
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Assuming the following were synthesized simultaneously, which would be the last to arrive at the output region of a neuron?
a. proteins synthesized on free ribosomes.
b. voltage-gated calcium channels.
c. action potentials.
d. proteins synthesized on rough endoplasmic reticulu…
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A. proteins synthesized on free ribosomes
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There is an autoimmune disease called Guillain Barre Syndrome that attacks Schwann cells to slow or block the conduction of action potentials. The observed effects of this disease result from:
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destroying the myelin in the internodal regions of lower motor neurons.
increasing the time constant tau in the internodal regions of stretch receptor neurons.
increasing the membrane capacitance (Cm) in the internodal regions of lower motor neurons.
increasing the amount of char…
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There are neurotransmitters in the central nervous system that open ligand-gated Cl- channels. Opening these channels on the postsynaptic membrane:
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decreases the membrane resistance in the postysnaptic membrane
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Opening ligand-gated, ionotropic channels that permit Na+ influx first generates:
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an EPSP
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In the accompanying diagram of an action potential, the intracellular K+ concentration exceeds the extracellular K+ concentration at:
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1,2,3, and 4
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You would expect to find the output regions of neurons that release the neurotransmitter GABA in:
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gray matter of the CNS
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Protein synthesis for neurons in the spinotectal tract, which is responsible for the reflex involved at looking at a painful stimulus, would be located in the:
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dorsal horn of the spinal cord
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In discussing descending pathways, we talked about neurons whose conductile processes are in the internal capsule. These neurons:
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form synapses in the ventral horn of the spical cord
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Action potentials initiated at the trigger zone of __1__ in the ___2__ of the spinal cord propagate to the___3__on skeletal muscle cells where they open____4__] to admit ___5___
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lower motor neurons
venral horn gray matter
output region of the lower motor neuron
voltage-gated Ca2+ channels
Calcium/ CA2+
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Calcium that binds to the vesicular membrane protein, synaptotagmin and leads to the release of the neurotransmitter ___1__ which binds to ___2___] on the ___3__ and admit monovalent cation ___4__ to the muscle cell.
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Acetylcholine
nicotinic acetylcholine receptors
posynyaptic cell
Na+
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The monovalent cation in 39 causes __1__channels to open and initiate __2__ that propagate along the muscle cell plasma membrane and into the __3__ where the increase in positive charge causes a cytoplasmic portion of the __4__ to be removed from the __5__and permit the efflux of __6__ fr…
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voltage gated Na+
action potentials
T-tubules
DHP receptor
RYR channel
Ca2+
sarcoplasmic reticulum
tropnin C
thin filament
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Following the events described in 40, __1__ bound to the actin moves to reveal the __2__ on __3__. When the __4__ head binds to this site, __5__ and __6__ leave this molecule causing a conformational change that tugs on the __7__ to draw the __8__ at both ends of the__9__ closer together.
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tropomyosin
myosin binding site
G actin
myosin
ADP
Pi
actin thin filament
z-lines
sarcomere
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Suppose a physician listens to her patient’s heart through a stethoscope and hears "lub – hiss – dub." What is the most likely explanation for this murmur?
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stenosis of the pulmonary valve
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At a minimum, which component(s) of the immune system must be suppressed in order to treat rheumatic fever?
a. The cellular branch
b. The entire specific immune system
c. The humoral branch
d. The innate immune system
e. Both A and C
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A. the cellular branch
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Rheumatic fever is directly caused by the action of:
a. Professional antigen presenting cells
b. Plasma B-lymphocytes
c. CD8 cells
d. CD4 cells
e. Bacterial cells
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Plasma B-lymphocytes
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Suppose a physician listens to her patient’s heart through a stethoscope and hears "lub – dub – hiss." What is the most likely explanation for this murmur?
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stenosis of the pulmonary valve
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Presuming a normal buffy coat, what is the approximate plasma volume in the blood of a person with primary polycythemia?
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between 18% and 20%
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Ebola virus infects and destroys endothelial cells. The disease has a mortality rate that approaches 90% within a a week of acquiring the disease. You would expect this virus to cause:
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massive internal bleeding and a breakdown in the structure of capillaries
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In the initial stages of Ebola infection you would expect to see high levels of:
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interferon
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During diastole, the _______________ valves remain open.
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right atrioventricular and left atrioventricular
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Papillary muscles are specialized muscles in the ventricles that are attached to the atrioventricular valves and ensure that these valves remain closed during systole. You would expect these muscles to be contracted when:
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when the ventricular myocardium contrancts and during the isovolumetic contraction phase
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Which of the following would be expected to increase blood flow through the capillary beds in the ventricular myocardium?
a. An increase in atrial myocardial contraction.
b. An increase in ventricular myocardial contraction.
c. An increase in pressure in the aorta.
d. An incre…
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C. an increase in pressure in the aorta
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Blood in the ventricle that is destined for the pulmonary capillary beds is in contact with the:
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endothelial cells of the endocardium
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In the accompanying figure, an increase in the value of the pressure at _____ would yield the greatest increase in blood flow through the coronary artery.
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D
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In the accompanying figure, the pressure in the aorta is less than the pressure in the in the ventricles from:
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C to D
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Increasing _________ would increase the sarcomere length in contractile cardiomyocytes leading to increased _______.
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end diastolic volume; stroke volume
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In the accompanying electrocardiogram, action potentials will be propagating in conductile cells from the atrioventricular node toward the ventricular contractile cardiomyocytes:
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during the P-Q interval
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To reduce cardiac output, the parasympathetic branch of the autonomic nervous system _______ in conductile cardiomyocytes.
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increases K+ permeability and decreases cyclic AMP
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In the accompanying electrocardiogram, most of the ventricular filling would occur:
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between 3 and 4
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Erythropoietin is a ________ that increases the rate of cell division in the _______.
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protein hormone; red bone marrow
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Ribosomes are important to the survival of which of the following?
a. platelets.
b. erythrocytes.
c. Plasma B cells.
d. reticulocytes
e. All of the above are correct.
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Plasma B cells
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When blood is spun in a centrifuge, T cell receptors are found in the:
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buffy coat
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In the process of lymph production water returns to the blood on the venous side of the capillaries because:
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the protein concentration in the blood capillaries on the venous side is greater than in the protein concentration in the extracellular spaces around the cells (the interstitial fluid).
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The lymphatic tissues most commonly associated with the basilar region of the epithelium of the pharynx is (are) the:
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tonsils
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A sign that the Human Immunodeficiency Virus has produced Acquired Immunodeficiency Syndrome (AIDS) is a low number of CD4 cells in the blood. The low CD4 count demonstrates a lack of:
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T-helper cells
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Aged erythrocytes normally meet their end in the spleen when they are engulfed by ______ that recognize which erythrocytes are worn out by the ________ on the erythrocyte plasma membrane.
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macrophages; oxidized sugars
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Among the cells involved in inflammation that are part of the nonspecific immune system, the most numerous and first to be mobilized and arrive at the site of inflammation are the:
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neutrophils
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The pressure generated by the left ventricle drops sharply as blood flows through the _____1_____. This is due to these vessels’ increase in ______2______ and the resulting increase in ____3______. Once in the capillaries, this pressure is referred to as _____4_______, and it moves fluid …
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arterioles
branches
resistance
hydrostatis pressure
into the extracellular space
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In the myocardium, ______1______ cardiomyocytes are innervated by ______2_______ neurons. Here, the release of norepinephrine leads to an increase in _______3_____, which in turn activates a phosphorylating enzyme. This kinase in turn modifies the activity of _____4______ to regulate intr…
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contractile
postganglionic sympathetic
cAMP
voltage-gated Ca2+ channels, ryanodine receptors, pumps on the sarcoplasmic reticulum
Ca2+
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In a __1__ lymphocyte, the __2__ is a __3__ protein that can bind a foreign protein on the outside of the cell to form a(n) __4__ complex that can be brought into the cell via __5__. Once in the cell the complex is targeted to the __6__ where it is broken into __7__ that are moved to an e…
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naive B
antibody
transmembrane
antigen/antibody
endocytosis
lysosome
antigen fragments
MHC II protein
professional antigen presenting cells
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The cell described in question 39 can be induced to divide and make copies of itself through contact with a(n) _1_ cell which is also known as a(n) _2_ cell whose name derives from a transmembrane protein that binds to the _3_on the cell in question 39. Bringing the two cells close togeth…
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T helper
CD4
MHC II protein
T cell receptor
cytokines
clonal
plasma B cell
antibody
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In virus-infected cells, pieces of viral proteins are displayed on the cell surface attached to _1_proteins. These fragments of viral protein are recognized by the _2_ on _3_ cells, which are also known as _4_ cells. A good three-dimensional fit between the proteins on the two cells leads…
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MHC I
T Cell Receptor
T killer
CD8
perforin
Calcium
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Describe the Male Reproduction system in terms of a factory:
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Factory/ Assembly plant
Finishing Plant- cleans things up and adds fuel and removes defects
Delivery system- vas deferons and accessory glands
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What is the optimal temperature for testis?
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2-3 degrees celcius lower than body temperature
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What are the 2 parts to testis function?
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testicular descent (scrotal testes):
cermaster muscle: raises and lowers
tunica dartos- wrinkles skin (results in thinker insulation)
both help keep testis cool
pampiniform plexus (countercurrent)
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Describe the pampiniform plexus:
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it is the radiator system of the testes. It counters current heat exchange. It contains testicular arteries and veins. The cool blood, cools down the warm blood as it goes from the body into the testes
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What are the 3 parts to testicular descent?
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Abdominal translocation
Transinguinal migration
Inguinoscrotal migration
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Abdominal testis translocation
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-testis grows during translocation
-vaginal process is carried downward as gubernaculum enlarges
-Tail of epididymis ends up in internal inguinal ring (IIR)
-under influence of InSL3 produced by leydig cells
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what is the transinguinal migration of the testis?
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movement through the abdominal wall from an abdominal to a subcutaneous location
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Inguinoscrotal migration:
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Movement of testis down channel and into the strotum.
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What when increased can help the testicular descent process?
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testosterone
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What percent of males are born w/out testicular descent? When does it occur?
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3%, usually occurs within first year of life
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What is the problem when testes fail to descend?
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Temperature- males cannot produce sperm
Much more likely to be cancerous if it stays within the body
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Describe cryptorchidism (undescended testes):
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most common birth defect of male genitalia in human infants
failure of testes to descend into the scrotum
reduced fertility, increased risk of testicular cancer
hormonal abnormalities, genetic and environmental
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There are no blood vessels in the _____, where sperm cells are made.
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seminiferous tubules
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What surrounds seminiferous cells and makes testosterone?
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Levdig cells
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How many days does it take for a sperm cell to be produced?
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~75
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Describe the function of Interstitial cells (Leydig cells) of the testes:
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produce testosterone (negative feedback- lessens production of- GnRH/ LH)
Testosterone is converted to dihydrotestosterone (DHT) for inducing biological effects
Testosterone is converted to estradiol for inducing sexual behaviors in males
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Describe the function/ whats included in the seminiferous tubules in the testes:
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germ cells (spermatogonia- including spermatogonial stem cells, spermatocytes, spermatids, spermatozoa)
Sertoli cells ("nurse cells")- secrete inhibin (neg. feeback for FSH)- take care of developing germ cells
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What are the steps in spermatogensis:
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spermatocytogensis- cell divisions- 42 days
spermiogensis- 20 days- change in shape
Transport through epididymis- 14 days
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How much sperm does males make per day?
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~200 million
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What are the parts to a spermatid (sperm)?
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Head- acrosome (contains digestive enzymes that are released when in contact with the egg) and the nucleus
Midpiece- centrioles and mitochondria
Tail (flagellum)- contains microtubules
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What do sertoli cells do?
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form tight junctions- blood testis barrier
support germ cells- physically, nutrition
secrete fluids
secrete inhibin- feedback to pituitary
phagocytose defective sperm
in fetal life, secrete AMH
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What does the hormone FSH do in Testis function?
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FSH stimulates the Sertoli cells, which support spermatogenesis by physical means and by secreting chemicals needed for growth and differentiation of germ cells
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What does the hormone LH do in testis function?
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LH stimulates Leydig cells (interstital cells) to synthesize testosterone
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What does the hormone testosterone (DHT) do in testis function?
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DHT also stimulates spermatogenesis by initiating divisions of spermatogonia near the basal lamina. It also supports the function of sertoli cells, which have androgen receptors
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Muscle System