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ACC 232: FINAL EXAM
The residual interest in a corporation belongs to the
a. management.
b. creditors.
c. common stockholders.
d. preferred stockholders. |
C |
The pre-emptive right of a common stockholder is the right to
a. share proportionately in corporate assets upon liquidation.
b. share proportionately in any new issues of stock of the same class.
c. receive cash dividends before they are distributed to preferred stockholders.
d. exclude preferred stockholders from voting rights. |
B |
The pre-emptive right enables a stockholder to
a. share proportionately in any new issues of stock of the same class.
b. receive cash dividends before other classes of stock without the pre-emptive right.
c. sell capital stock back to the corporation at the option of the stockholder.
d. receive the same amount of dividends on a percentage basis as the preferred stockholders |
A |
In a corporate form of business organization, legal capital is best defined as
a. the amount of capital the state of incorporation allows the company to accumulate over its existence.
b. the par value of all capital stock issued.
c. the amount of capital the federal government allows a corporation to generate.
d. the total capital raised by a corporation within the limits set by the Securities and Exchange Commission. |
B |
Stockholders of a business enterprise are said to be the residual owners. The term residual owner means that shareholders
a. are entitled to a dividend every year in which the business earns a profit.
b. have the rights to specific assets of the business.
c. bear the ultimate risks and uncertainties and receive the benefits of enterprise ownership.
d. can negotiate individual contracts on behalf of the enterprise. |
C |
Total stockholders' equity represents
a. a claim to specific assets contributed by the owners.
b. the maximum amount that can be borrowed by the enterprise.
c. a claim against a portion of the total assets of an enterprise.
d. only the amount of earnings that have been retained in the business. |
C |
A primary source of stockholders' equity is
a. income retained by the corporation.
b. appropriated retained earnings.
c. contributions by stockholders.
d. both income retained by the corporation and contributions by stockholders. |
D |
Stockholders' equity is generally classified into two major categories:
a. contributed capital and appropriated capital.
b. appropriated capital and retained earnings.
c. retained earnings and unappropriated capital.
d. earned capital and contributed capital. |
D |
The accounting problem in a lump sum issuance is the allocation of proceeds between the classes of securities. An acceptable method of allocation is the
a. pro forma method.
b. proportional method.
c. incremental method.
d. either the proportional method or the incremental method. |
D |
When a corporation issues its capital stock in payment for services, the least appropriate basis for recording the transaction is the
a. market value of the services received.
b. par value of the shares issued.
c. market value of the shares issued.
d. Any of these provides an appropriate basis for recording the transaction. |
B |
Direct costs incurred to sell stock such as underwriting costs should be accounted for as
1. a reduction of additional paid-in capital.
2. an expense of the period in which the stock is issued.
3. an intangible asset.
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 1 or 3 |
A |
A "secret reserve" will be created if
a. inadequate depreciation is charged to income.
b. a capital expenditure is charged to expense.
c. liabilities are understated.
d. stockholders' equity is overstated. |
B |
Which of the following represents the total number of shares that a corporation may issue under the terms of its charter?
a. authorized shares
b. issued shares
c. unissued shares
d. outstanding shares |
A |
Stock that has a fixed per-share amount printed on each stock certificate is called
a. stated value stock.
b. fixed value stock.
c. uniform value stock.
d. par value stock.
|
D |
Which of the following is not a legal restriction related to profit distributions by a corporation?
a. The amount distributed to owners must be in compliance with the state laws governing corporations.
b. The amount distributed in any one year can never exceed the net income reported for that year.
c. Profit distributions must be formally approved by the board of directors.
d. Dividends must be in full agreement with the capital stock contracts as to preferences and participation. |
B |
In January 2010, Finley Corporation, a newly formed company, issued 10,000 shares of its $10 par common stock for $15 per share. On July 1, 2010, Finley Corporation reacquired 1,000 shares of its outstanding stock for $12 per share. The acquisition of these treasury shares
a. decreased total stockholders' equity.
b. increased total stockholders' equity.
c. did not change total stockholders' equity.
d. decreased the number of issued shares. |
A |
Treasury shares are
a. shares held as an investment by the treasurer of the corporation.
b. shares held as an investment of the corporation.
c. issued and outstanding shares.
d. issued but not outstanding shares. |
D |
When treasury stock is purchased for more than the par value of the stock and the cost method is used to account for treasury stock, what account(s) should be debited?
a. Treasury stock for the par value and paid-in capital in excess of par for the excess of the purchase price over the par value.
b. Paid-in capital in excess of par for the purchase price.
c. Treasury stock for the purchase price.
d. Treasury stock for the par value and retained earnings for the excess of the purchase price over the par value. |
C |
"Gains" on sales of treasury stock (using the cost method) should be credited to
a. paid-in capital from treasury stock.
b. capital stock.
c. retained earnings.
d. other income. |
A |
Porter Corp. purchased its own par value stock on January 1, 2010 for $20,000 and debited the treasury stock account for the purchase price. The stock was subsequently sold for $12,000. The $8,000 difference between the cost and sales price should be recorded as a deduction from
a. additional paid-in capital to the extent that previous net "gains" from sales of the same class of stock are included therein; otherwise, from retained earnings.
b. additional paid-in capital without regard as to whether or not there have been previous net "gains" from sales of the same class of stock included therein.
c. retained earnings.
d. net income. |
A |
How should a "gain" from the sale of treasury stock be reflected when using the cost method of recording treasury stock transactions?
a. As ordinary earnings shown on the income statement.
b. As paid-in capital from treasury stock transactions.
c. As an increase in the amount shown for common stock.
d. As an extraordinary item shown on the income statement. |
B |
Which of the following best describes a possible result of treasury stock transactions by a corporation?
a. May increase but not decrease retained earnings.
b. May increase net income if the cost method is used.
c. May decrease but not increase retained earnings.
d. May decrease but not increase net income. |
C |
Which of the following features of preferred stock makes the security more like debt than an equity instrument?
a. Participating
b. Voting
c. Redeemable
d. Noncumulative |
C |
The cumulative feature of preferred stock
a. limits the amount of cumulative dividends to the par value of the preferred stock.
b. requires that dividends not paid in any year must be made up in a later year before dividends are distributed to common shareholders.
c. means that the shareholder can accumulate preferred stock until it is equal to the par value of common stock at which time it can be converted into common stock.
d. enables a preferred stockholder to accumulate dividends until they equal the par value of the stock and receive the stock in place of the cash dividends. |
B |
According to the FASB, redeemable preferred stock should be
a. included with common stock.
b. included as a liability.
c. excluded from the stockholders' equity heading.
d. included as a contra item in stockholders' equity. |
B |
Cumulative preferred dividends in arrears should be shown in a corporation's balance sheet as
a. an increase in current liabilities.
b. an increase in stockholders' equity.
c. a footnote.
d. an increase in current liabilities for the current portion and long-term liabilities for the long-term portion. |
C |
At the date of the financial statements, common stock shares issued would exceed common stock shares outstanding as a result of the
a. declaration of a stock split.
b. declaration of a stock dividend.
c. purchase of treasury stock.
d. payment in full of subscribed stock. |
C |
An entry is not made on the
a. date of declaration.
b. date of record.
c. date of payment.
d. An entry is made on all of these dates. |
B |
Cash dividends are paid on the basis of the number of shares
a. authorized.
b. issued.
c. outstanding.
d. outstanding less the number of treasury shares. |
C |
Which of the following statements about property dividends is not true?
a. A property dividend is usually in the form of securities of other companies.
b. A property dividend is also called a dividend in kind.
c. The accounting for a property dividend should be based on the carrying value (book value) of the nonmonetary assets transferred.
d. All of these statements are true. |
C |
Houser Corporation owns 4,000,000 shares of stock in Baha Corporation. On December 31, 2010, Houser distributed these shares of stock as a dividend to its stockholders. This is an example of a
a. property dividend.
b. stock dividend.
c. liquidating dividend.
d. cash dividend. |
A |
A dividend which is a return to stockholders of a portion of their original investments is a
a. liquidating dividend.
b. property dividend.
c. liability dividend.
d. participating dividend. |
A |
A mining company declared a liquidating dividend. The journal entry to record the declaration must include a debit to
a. Retained Earnings.
b. a paid-in capital account.
c. Accumulated Depletion.
d. Accumulated Depreciation. |
B |
If management wishes to "capitalize" part of the earnings, it may issue a
a. cash dividend.
b. stock dividend.
c. property dividend.
d. liquidating dividend. |
B |
Which dividends do not reduce stockholders' equity?
a. Cash dividends
b. Stock dividends
c. Property dividends
d. Liquidating dividends |
B |
The declaration and issuance of a stock dividend larger than 25% of the shares previously outstanding
a. increases common stock outstanding and increases total stockholders' equity.
b. decreases retained earnings but does not change total stockholders' equity.
c. may increase or decrease paid-in capital in excess of par but does not change total stockholders' equity.
d. increases retained earnings and increases total stockholders' equity. |
B |
Quirk Corporation issued a 100% stock dividend of its common stock which had a par value of $10 before and after the dividend. At what amount should retained earnings be capitalized for the additional shares issued?
a. There should be no capitalization of retained earnings.
b. Par value
c. Market value on the declaration date
d. Market value on the payment date |
B |
The issuer of a 5% common stock dividend to common stockholders preferably should transfer from retained earnings to contributed capital an amount equal to the
a. market value of the shares issued.
b. book value of the shares issued.
c. minimum legal requirements.
d. par or stated value of the shares issued. |
A |
At the date of declaration of a small common stock dividend, the entry should not include
a. a credit to Common Stock Dividend Payable.
b. a credit to Paid-in Capital in Excess of Par.
c. a debit to Retained Earnings.
d. All of these are acceptable. |
A |
The balance in Common Stock Dividend Distributable should be reported as a(n)
a. deduction from common stock issued.
b. addition to capital stock.
c. current liability.
d. contra current asset. |
B |
A feature common to both stock splits and stock dividends is
a. a transfer to earned capital of a corporation.
b. that there is no effect on total stockholders' equity.
c. an increase in total liabilities of a corporation.
d. a reduction in the contributed capital of a corporation. |
B |
What effect does the issuance of a 2-for-1 stock split have on each of the following?
Par Value per Share Retained Earnings
a. No effect No effect
b. Increase No effect
c. Decrease No effect
d. Decrease Decrease |
C |
Which one of the following disclosures should be made in the equity section of the balance sheet, rather than in the notes to the financial statements?
a. Dividend preferences
b. Liquidation preferences
c. Call prices
d. Conversion or exercise prices |
B |
The rate of return on common stock equity is calculated by dividing
a. net income less preferred dividends by average common stockholders' equity.
b. net income by average common stockholders' equity.
c. net income less preferred dividends by ending common stockholders' equity.
d. net income by ending common stockholders' equity. |
A |
The payout ratio can be calculated by dividing
a. dividends per share by earnings per share.
b. cash dividends by net income less preferred dividends.
c. cash dividends by market price per share.
d. dividends per share by earnings per share and dividing cash dividends by net income less preferred dividends. |
B |
Younger Company has outstanding both common stock and nonparticipating, non-cumulative preferred stock. The liquidation value of the preferred is equal to its par value. The book value per share of the common stock is unaffected by
a. the declaration of a stock dividend on preferred payable in preferred stock when the market price of the preferred is equal to its par value.
b. the declaration of a stock dividend on common stock payable in common stock when the market price of the common is equal to its par value.
c. the payment of a previously declared cash dividend on the common stock.
d. a 2-for-1 split of the common stock. |
C |
Assume common stock is the only class of stock outstanding in the Manley Corporation. Total stockholders' equity divided by the number of common stock shares outstanding is called
a. book value per share.
b. par value per share.
c. stated value per share.
d. market value per share. |
A |
Dividends are not paid on
a. noncumulative preferred stock.
b. nonparticipating preferred stock.
c. treasury common stock.
d. Dividends are paid on all of these. |
C |
Noncumulative preferred dividends in arrears
a. are not paid or disclosed.
b. must be paid before any other cash dividends can be distributed.
c. are disclosed as a liability until paid.
d. are paid to preferred stockholders if sufficient funds remain after payment of the current preferred dividend. |
A |
How should cumulative preferred dividends in arrears be shown in a corporation's statement of financial position?
a. Note disclosure
b. Increase in stockholders' equity
c. Increase in current liabilities |
A |
Convertible bonds
a. have priority over other indebtedness.
b. are usually secured by a first or second mortgage.
c. pay interest only in the event earnings are sufficient to cover the interest.
d. may be exchanged for equity securities. |
D |
The conversion of bonds is most commonly recorded by the
a. incremental method.
b. proportional method.
c. market value method.
d. book value method. |
D |
When a bond issuer offers some form of additional consideration (a "sweetener") to induce conversion, the sweetener is accounted for as a(n)
a. extraordinary item.
b. expense.
c. loss.
d. none of these. |
B |
Corporations issue convertible debt for two main reasons. One is the desire to raise equity capital that, assuming conversion, will arise when the original debt is converted. The other is
a. the ease with which convertible debt is sold even if the company has a poor credit rating.
b. the fact that equity capital has issue costs that convertible debt does not.
c. that many corporations can obtain financing at lower rates.
d. that convertible bonds will always sell at a premium. |
C |
When convertible debt is retired by the issuer, any material difference between the cash acquisition price and the carrying amount of the debt should be
a. reflected currently in income, but not as an extraordinary item.
b. reflected currently in income as an extraordinary item.
c. treated as a prior period adjustment.
d. treated as an adjustment of additional paid-in capital. |
A |
The conversion of preferred stock into common requires that any excess of the par value of the common shares issued over the carrying amount of the preferred being converted should be
a. reflected currently in income, but not as an extraordinary item.
b. reflected currently in income as an extraordinary item.
c. treated as a prior period adjustment.
d. treated as a direct reduction of retained earnings. |
D |
The conversion of preferred stock may be recorded by the
a. incremental method.
b. book value method.
c. market value method.
d. par value method. |
B |
When the cash proceeds from a bond issued with detachable stock warrants exceed the sum of the par value of the bonds and the fair market value of the warrants, the excess should be credited to
a. additional paid-in capital from stock warrants.
b. retained earnings.
c. a liability account.
d. premium on bonds payable. |
D |
Proceeds from an issue of debt securities having stock warrants should not be allocated between debt and equity features when
a. the market value of the warrants is not readily available.
b. exercise of the warrants within the next few fiscal periods seems remote.
c. the allocation would result in a discount on the debt security.
d. the warrants issued with the debt securities are nondetachable. |
D |
Stock warrants outstanding should be classified as
a. liabilities.
b. reductions of capital contributed in excess of par value.
c. assets.
d. none of these. |
D |
A corporation issues bonds with detachable warrants. The amount to be recorded as paid-in capital is preferably
a. zero.
b. calculated by the excess of the proceeds over the face amount of the bonds.
c. equal to the market value of the warrants.
d. based on the relative market values of the two securities involved. |
D |
The distribution of stock rights to existing common stockholders will increase paid-in capital at the
Date of Issuance Date of Exercise
of the Rights of the Rights
a. Yes Yes
b. Yes No
c. No Yes
d. No No |
C |
The major difference between convertible debt and stock warrants is that upon exercise of the warrants
a. the stock is held by the company for a defined period of time before they are issued to the warrant holder.
b. the holder has to pay a certain amount of cash to obtain the shares.
c. the stock involved is restricted and can only be sold by the recipient after a set period of time.
d. no paid-in capital in excess of par can be a part of the transaction. |
B |
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a noncompensatory stock option plan?
a. Substantially all full-time employees may participate on an equitable basis.
b. The plan offers no substantive option feature.
c. Unlimited time period permitted for exercise of an option as long as the holder is still employed by the company.
d. Discount from the market price of the stock no greater than would be reasonable in an offer of stock to stockholders or others. |
C |
The date on which to measure the compensation element in a stock option granted to a corporate employee ordinarily is the date on which the employee
a. is granted the option.
b. has performed all conditions precedent to exercising the option.
c. may first exercise the option.
d. exercises the option |
A |
Compensation expense resulting from a compensatory stock option plan is generally
a. recognized in the period of exercise.
b. recognized in the period of the grant.
c. allocated to the periods benefited by the employee's required service.
d. allocated over the periods of the employee's service life to retirement. |
C |
The date on which total compensation expense is computed in a stock option plan is the date
a. of grant.
b. of exercise.
c. that the market price coincides with the option price.
c. that the market price exceeds the option price. |
A |
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a noncompensatory stock purchase plan?
a. It is open to almost all full-time employees.
b. The discount from market price is small.
c. The plan offers no substantive option feature.
d. All of these are characteristics. |
D |
Under the intrinsic value method, compensation expense resulting from an incentive stock option is generally
a. not recognized because no excess of market price over the option price exists at the date of grant.
b. recognized in the period of the grant.
c. allocated to the periods benefited by the employee's required service.
d. recognized in the period of exercise. |
C |
For stock appreciation rights, the measurement date for computing compensation is the date
a. the rights mature.
b. the stock's price reaches a predetermined amount.
c. of grant.
d. of exercise. |
D |
An executive pays no taxes at time of exercise in a(an)
a. stock appreciation rights plan.
b. incentive stock option plan.
c. nonqualified stock option plan.
d. Taxes would be paid in all of these. |
B |
A company estimates the fair value of SARs, using an option-pricing model, for
a. share-based equity awards.
b. share-based liability awards.
c. both equity awards and liability awards.
d. neither equity awards or liability awards. |
B |
Which of the following is not a debt security?
a. Convertible bonds
b. Commercial paper
c. Loans receivable
d. All of these are debt securities. |
C |
A correct valuation is
a. available-for-sale at amortized cost.
b. held-to-maturity at amortized cost.
c. held-to-maturity at fair value.
d. none of these. |
C |
Securities which could be classified as held-to-maturity are
a. redeemable preferred stock.
b. warrants.
c. municipal bonds.
d. treasury stock. |
C |
Unrealized holding gains or losses which are recognized in income are from securities classified as
a. held-to-maturity.
b. available-for-sale.
c. trading.
d. none of these. |
C |
When an investor's accounting period ends on a date that does not coincide with an interest receipt date for bonds held as an investment, the investor must
a. make an adjusting entry to debit Interest Receivable and to credit Interest Revenue for the amount of interest accrued since the last interest receipt date.
b. notify the issuer and request that a special payment be made for the appropriate portion of the interest period.
c. make an adjusting entry to debit Interest Receivable and to credit Interest Revenue for the total amount of interest to be received at the next interest receipt date.
d. do nothing special and ignore the fact that the accounting period does not coincide with the bond's interest period. |
A |
Debt securities that are accounted for at amortized cost, not fair value, are
a. held-to-maturity debt securities.
b. trading debt securities.
c. available-for-sale debt securities.
d. never-sell debt securities. |
A |
Debt securities acquired by a corporation which are accounted for by recognizing unrealized holding gains or losses and are included as other comprehensive income and as a separate component of stockholders' equity are
a. held-to-maturity debt securities.
b. trading debt securities.
c. available-for-sale debt securities.
d. never-sell debt securities. |
C |
Use of the effective-interest method in amortizing bond premiums and discounts results in
a. a greater amount of interest income over the life of the bond issue than would result from use of the straight-line method.
b. a varying amount being recorded as interest income from period to period.
c. a variable rate of return on the book value of the investment.
d. a smaller amount of interest income over the life of the bond issue than would result from use of the straight-line method. |
B |
Equity securities acquired by a corporation which are accounted for by recognizing unrealized holding gains or losses as other comprehensive income and as a separate component of stockholders' equity are
a. available-for-sale securities where a company has holdings of less than 20%.
b. trading securities where a company has holdings of less than 20%.
c securities where a company has holdings of between 20% and 50%.
d. securities where a company has holdings of more than 50%. |
A |
A requirement for a security to be classified as held-to-maturity is
a. ability to hold the security to maturity.
b. positive intent.
c. the security must be a debt security.
d. All of these are required. |
D |
Held-to-maturity securities are reported at
a. acquisition cost.
b. acquisition cost plus amortization of a discount.
c. acquisition cost plus amortization of a premium.
d. fair value. |
B |
Watt Co. purchased $300,000 of bonds for $315,000. If Watt intends to hold the securities to maturity, the entry to record the investment includes
a. a debit to Held-to-Maturity Securities at $300,000.
b. a credit to Premium on Investments of $15,000.
c. a debit to Held-to-Maturity Securities at $315,000.
d. none of these. |
c |
Which of the following is not correct in regard to trading securities?
a. They are held with the intention of selling them in a short period of time.
b. Unrealized holding gains and losses are reported as part of net income.
c. Any discount or premium is not amortized.
d. All of these are correct. |
D |
In accounting for investments in debt securities that are classified as trading securities,
a. a discount is reported separately.
b. a premium is reported separately.
c. any discount or premium is not amortized.
d. none of these. |
C |
Investments in debt securities are generally recorded at
a. cost including accrued interest.
b. maturity value.
c. cost including brokerage and other fees.
d. maturity value with a separate discount or premium account. |
C |
Jordan Co. purchased ten-year, 10% bonds that pay interest semiannually. The bonds are sold to yield 8%. One step in calculating the issue price of the bonds is to multiply the principal by the table value for
a. 10 periods and 10% from the present value of 1 table.
b. 10 periods and 8% from the present value of 1 table.
c. 20 periods and 5% from the present value of 1 table.
d. 20 periods and 4% from the present value of 1 table. |
C |
Investments in debt securities should be recorded on the date of acquisition at
a. lower of cost or market.
b. market value.
c. market value plus brokerage fees and other costs incident to the purchase.
d. face value plus brokerage fees and other costs incident to the purchase. |
C |
An available-for-sale debt security is purchased at a discount. The entry to record the amortization of the discount includes a
a. debit to Available-for-Sale Securities.
b. debit to the discount account.
c. debit to Interest Revenue.
d. none of these. |
A |
APB Opinion No. 21 specifies that, regarding the amortization of a premium or discount on a debt security, the
a. effective-interest method of allocation must be used.
b. straight-line method of allocation must be used.
c. effective-interest method of allocation should be used but other methods can be applied if there is no material difference in the results obtained.
d. par value method must be used and therefore no allocation is necessary. |
C |
Which of the following is correct about the effective-interest method of amortization?
a. The effective interest method applied to investments in debt securities is different from that applied to bonds payable.
b. Amortization of a discount decreases from period to period.
c. Amortization of a premium decreases from period to period.
d. The effective-interest method produces a constant rate of return on the book value of the investment from period to period. |
D |
When investments in debt securities are purchased between interest payment dates, preferably the
a. securities account should include accrued interest.
b. accrued interest is debited to Interest Expense.
c. accrued interest is debited to Interest Revenue.
d. accrued interest is debited to Interest Receivable. |
C |
Which of the following is not generally correct about recording a sale of a debt security before maturity date?
a. Accrued interest will be received by the seller even though it is not an interest payment date.
b. An entry must be made to amortize a discount to the date of sale.
c. The entry to amortize a premium to the date of sale includes a credit to the Premium on Investments in Debt Securities. |
C |
When a company has acquired a "passive interest" in another corporation, the acquiring company should account for the investment
a. by using the equity method.
b. by using the fair value method.
c. by using the effective interest method.
d. by consolidation. |
B |
. Santo Corporation declares and distributes a cash dividend that is a result of current earnings. How will the receipt of those dividends affect the investment account of the investor under each of the following accounting methods?
Fair Value Method Equity Method
a. No Effect Decrease
b. Increase Decrease
c. No Effect No Effect
d. Decrease No Effect |
A |
An investor has a long-term investment in stocks. Regular cash dividends received by the investor are recorded as
Fair Value Method Equity Method
a. Income Income
b. A reduction of the investment A reduction of the investment
c. Income A reduction of the investment
d. A reduction of the investment Income |
C |
When a company holds between 20% and 50% of the outstanding stock of an investee, which of the following statements applies?
a. The investor should always use the equity method to account for its investment.
b. The investor should use the equity method to account for its investment unless circum-stances indicate that it is unable to exercise "significant influence" over the investee.
c. The investor must use the fair value method unless it can clearly demonstrate the ability to exercise "significant influence" over the investee.
d. The investor should always use the fair value method to account for its investment. |
B |
If the parent company owns 90% of the subsidiary company's outstanding common stock, the company should generally account for the income of the subsidiary under the
a. cost method.
b. fair value method.
c. divesture method.
d. equity method. |
C |
Koehn Corporation accounts for its investment in the common stock of Sells Company under the equity method. Koehn Corporation should ordinarily record a cash dividend received from Sells as
a. a reduction of the carrying value of the investment.
b. additional paid-in capital.
c. an addition to the carrying value of the investment.
d. dividend income. |
A |
Under the equity method of accounting for investments, an investor recognizes its share of the earnings in the period in which the
a. investor sells the investment.
b. investee declares a dividend.
c. investee pays a dividend.
d. earnings are reported by the investee in its financial statements. |
D |
Judd, Inc., owns 35% of Cosby Corporation. During the calendar year 2010, Cosby had net earnings of $300,000 and paid dividends of $30,000. Judd mistakenly recorded these transactions using the fair value method rather than the equity method of accounting. What effect would this have on the investment account, net income, and retained earnings, respectively?
a. Understate, overstate, overstate
b. Overstate, understate, understate
c. Overstate, overstate, overstate
d. Understate, understate, understate |
D |
Dublin Co. holds a 30% stake in Club Co. which was purchased in 2011 at a cost of $3,000,000. After applying the equity method, the Investment in Club Co. account has a balance of $3,040,000. At December 31, 2011 the fair value of the investment is $3,120,000. Which of the following values is acceptable for Dublin to use in its balance sheet at December 31, 2011?
I. $3,000,000
II. $3,040,000
III. $3,120,000
a. I, II, or III.
b. I or II only.
c. II only.
d. II or III only.
|
D |
The fair value option allows a company to
a. value its own liabilities at fair value.
b. record income when the fair value of its bonds increases.
c. report most financial instruments at fair value by recording gains and losses as a separate component of stockholders' equity.
d. All of the above are true of the fair value option |
A |
Impairments are
a. based on discounted cash flows for securities.
b. recognized as a realized loss if the impairment is judged to be temporary.
c. based on fair value for available-for-sale investments and on negotiated values for held-to-maturity investments.
d. evaluated at each reporting date for every investment. |
D |
A reclassification adjustment is reported in the
a. income statement as an Other Revenue or Expense.
b. stockholders' equity section of the balance sheet.
c. statement of comprehensive income as other comprehensive income.
d. statement of stockholders' equity. |
C |
When an investment in a held-to-maturity security is transferred to an available-for-sale security, the carrying value assigned to the available-for-sale security should be
a. its original cost.
b. its fair value at the date of the transfer.
c. the lower of its original cost or its fair value at the date of the transfer.
d. the higher of its original cost or its fair value at the date of the transfer. |
B |
When an investment in an available-for-sale security is transferred to trading because the company anticipates selling the stock in the near future, the carrying value assigned to the investment upon entering it in the trading portfolio should be
a. its original cost.
b. its fair value at the date of the transfer.
c. the higher of its original cost or its fair value at the date of the transfer.
d. the lower of its original cost or its fair value at the date of the transfer. |
B |
A debt security is transferred from one category to another. Generally acceptable accounting principles require that for this particular reclassification (1) the security be transferred at fair value at the date of transfer, and (2) the unrealized gain or loss at the date of transfer currently carried as a separate component of stockholders' equity be amortized over the remaining life of the security. What type of transfer is being described?
a. Transfer from trading to available-for-sale
b. Transfer from available-for-sale to trading
c. Transfer from held-to-maturity to available-for-sale
d. Transfer from available-for-sale to held-to-maturity |
D |
Gains trading" or "cherry picking" involves
a. moving securities whose value has decreased since acquisition from available-for-sale to held-to-maturity in order to avoid reporting losses.
b. reporting investment securities at fair value but liabilities at amortized cost.
c. selling securities whose value has increased since acquisition while holding those whose value has decreased since acquisition.
d. All of the above are considered methods of "gains trading" or "cherry picking." |
C |
Transfers between categories
a. result in companies omitting recognition of fair value in the year of the transfer.
b. are accounted for at fair value for all transfers.
c. are considered unrealized and unrecognized if transferred out of held-to-maturity into trading.
d. will always result in an impact on net income. |
B |
Companies that attempt to exploit inefficiencies in various derivative markets by attempting to lock in profits by simultaneously entering into transactions in two or more markets are called
a. arbitrageurs.
b. gamblers.
c. hedgers.
d. speculators. |
A |
All of the following statements regarding accounting for derivatives are correct except that
a. they should be recognized in the financial statements as assets and liabilities.
b. they should be reported at fair value.
c. gains and losses resulting from speculation should be deferred.
d. gains and losses resulting from hedge transactions are reported in different ways, depending upon the type of hedge. |
C |
All of the following are characteristics of a derivative financial instrument except the instrument
a. has one or more underlyings and an identified payment provision.
b. requires a large investment at the inception of the contract.
c. requires or permits net settlement.
d. All of these are characteristics. |
B |
Which of the following are considered equity securities?
I. Convertible debt.
II. Redeemable preferred stock.
III. Call or put options.
a. I and II only.
b. I and III only.
c. II only.
d. III only. |
D |
The accounting for fair value hedges records the derivative at its
a. amortized cost.
b. carrying value.
c. fair value.
d. historical cost. |
C |
Gains or losses on cash flow hedges are
a. ignored completely.
b. recorded in equity, as part of other comprehensive income.
c. reported directly in net income.
d. reported directly in retained earnings. |
B |
Gains or losses on cash flow hedges are
a. ignored completely.
b. recorded in equity, as part of other comprehensive income.
c. reported directly in net income.
d. reported directly in retained earnings. |
A |
All of the following are requirements for disclosures related to financial instruments except
a. disclosing the fair value and related carrying value of the instruments.
b. distinguishing between financial instruments held or issued for purposes other than trading.
c. combining or netting the fair value of separate financial instruments.
d. displaying as a separate classification of other comprehensive income the net gain/loss on derivative instruments designated in cash flow hedges. |
C |
A variable-interest entity has
a. insufficient equity investment at risk.
b. stockholders who have decision-making rights.
c. stockholders who absorb the losses or receive the benefits of a normal stockholder.
d. All of the above are characteristics of a variable-interest entity. |
A |
Under U.S. GAAP, which of the following models may be used to determine if an investment is consolidated?
Risk-and-reward model Voting-interest approach
a. Yes No
b. No Yes
c. No No
d. Yes Yes |
D |
The revenue recognition principle provides that revenue is recognized when
a. it is realized.
b. it is realizable.
c. it is realized or realizable and it is earned.
d. none of these. |
C |
When goods or services are exchanged for cash or claims to cash (receivables), revenues are
a. earned.
b. realized.
c. recognized.
d. all of these. |
B |
When the entity has substantially accomplished what it must do to be entitled to the benefits represented by the revenues, revenues are
a. earned.
b. realized.
c. recognized.
d. all of these. |
A |
Which of the following is not an accurate representation concerning revenue recognition?
a. Revenue from selling products is recognized at the date of sale, usually interpreted to mean the date of delivery to customers.
b. Revenue from services rendered is recognized when cash is received or when services have been performed.
c. Revenue from permitting others to use enterprise assets is recognized as time passes or as the assets are used.
d. Revenue from disposing of assets other than products is recognized at the date of sale. |
B |
The process of formally recording or incorporating an item in the financial statements of an entity is
a. allocation.
b. articulation.
c. realization.
d. recognition. |
D |
Dot Point, Inc. is a retailer of washers and dryers and offers a three-year service contract on each appliance sold. Although Dot Point sells the appliances on an installment basis, all service contracts are cash sales at the time of purchase by the buyer. Collections received for service contracts should be recorded as
a. service revenue.
b. deferred service revenue.
c. a reduction in installment accounts receivable.
d. a direct addition to retained earnings |
B |
Which of the following is not a reason why revenue is recognized at time of sale?
a. Realization has occurred.
b. The sale is the critical event.
c. Title legally passes from seller to buyer.
d. All of these are reasons to recognize revenue at time of sale. |
D |
An alternative available when the seller is exposed to continued risks of ownership through return of the product is
a. recording the sale, and accounting for returns as they occur in future periods.
b. not recording a sale until all return privileges have expired.
c. recording the sale, but reducing sales by an estimate of future returns.
d. all of these. |
D |
A sale should not be recognized as revenue by the seller at the time of sale if
a. payment was made by check.
b. the selling price is less than the normal selling price.
c. the buyer has a right to return the product and the amount of future returns cannot be reasonably estimated.
d. none of these. |
C |
The FASB concluded that if a company sells its product but gives the buyer the right to return the product, revenue from the sales transaction shall be recognized at the time of sale only if all of six conditions have been met. Which of the following is not one of these six conditions?
a. The amount of future returns can be reasonably estimated.
b. The seller's price is substantially fixed or determinable at time of sale.
c. The buyer's obligation to the seller would not be changed in the event of theft or damage of the product.
d. The buyer is obligated to pay the seller upon resale of the product. |
D |
In selecting an accounting method for a newly contracted long-term construction project, the principal factor to be considered should be
a. the terms of payment in the contract.
b. the degree to which a reliable estimate of the costs to complete and extent of progress toward completion is practicable.
c. the method commonly used by the contractor to account for other long-term construc-tion contracts.
d. the inherent nature of the contractor's technical facilities used in construction. |
B |
The percentage-of-completion method must be used when certain conditions exist. Which of the following is not one of those necessary conditions?
a. Estimates of progress toward completion, revenues, and costs are reasonably dependable.
b. The contractor can be expected to perform the contractual obligation.
c. The buyer can be expected to satisfy some of the obligations under the contract.
d. The contract clearly specifies the enforceable rights of the parties, the consideration to be exchanged, and the manner and terms of settlement. |
C |
When work to be done and costs to be incurred on a long-term contract can be estimated dependably, which of the following methods of revenue recognition is preferable?
a. Installment-sales method
b. Percentage-of-completion method
c. Completed-contract method |
B |
How should the balances of progress billings and construction in process be shown at reporting dates prior to the completion of a long-term contract?
a. Progress billings as deferred income, construction in progress as a deferred expense.
b. Progress billings as income, construction in process as inventory.
c. Net, as a current asset if debit balance, and current liability if credit balance.
d. Net, as income from construction if credit balance, and loss from construction if debit balance. |
C |
In accounting for a long-term construction-type contract using the percentage-of-completion method, the gross profit recognized during the first year would be the estimated total gross profit from the contract, multiplied by the percentage of the costs incurred during the year to the
a. total costs incurred to date.
b. total estimated cost.
c. unbilled portion of the contract price.
d. total contract price. |
B |
How should earned but unbilled revenues at the balance sheet date on a long-term construction contract be disclosed if the percentage-of-completion method of revenue recognition is used?
a. As construction in process in the current asset section of the balance sheet.
b. As construction in process in the noncurrent asset section of the balance sheet.
c. As a receivable in the noncurrent asset section of the balance sheet.
d. In a note to the financial statements until the customer is formally billed for the portion of work completed. |
A |
The principal disadvantage of using the percentage-of-completion method of recognizing revenue from long-term contracts is that it
a. is unacceptable for income tax purposes.
b. gives results based upon estimates which may be subject to considerable uncertainty.
c. is likely to assign a small amount of revenue to a period during which much revenue was actually earned.
d. none of these. |
B |
One of the more popular input measures used to determine the progress toward completion in the percentage-of-completion method is
a. revenue-percentage basis.
b. cost-percentage basis.
c. progress completion basis.
d. cost-to-cost basis. |
D |
The principal advantage of the completed-contract method is that
a. reported revenue is based on final results rather than estimates of unperformed work.
b. it reflects current performance when the period of a contract extends into more than one accounting period.
c. it is not necessary to recognize revenue at the point of sale.
d. a greater amount of gross profit and net income is reported than is the case when the percentage-of-completion method is used. |
A |
Under the completed-contract method
a. revenue, cost, and gross profit are recognized during the production cycle.
b. revenue and cost are recognized during the production cycle, but gross profit recognition is deferred until the contract is completed.
c. revenue, cost, and gross profit are recognized at the time the contract is completed.
d. none of these. |
C |
Cost estimates on a long-term contract may indicate that a loss will result on completion of the entire contract. In this case, the entire expected loss should be
a. recognized in the current period, regardless of whether the percentage-of-completion or completed-contract method is employed.
b. recognized in the current period under the percentage-of-completion method, but the completed-contract method should defer recognition of the loss to the time when the contract is completed.
c. recognized in the current period under the completed-contract method, but the percentage-of-completion method should defer the loss until the contract is completed.
d. deferred and recognized when the contract is completed, regardless of whether the percentage-of-completion or completed-contract method is employed. |
A |
Cost estimates at the end of the second year indicate a loss will result on completion of the entire contract. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Under the completed-contract method, the loss is not recognized until the year the construction is completed.
b. Under the percentage-of-completion method, the gross profit recognized in the first year must not be changed.
c. Under the completed-contract method, when the billings exceed the accumulated costs, the amount of the estimated loss is reported as a current liability.
d. Under the completed-contract method, when the Construction in Process balance exceeds the billings, the estimated loss is added to the accumulated costs. |
C |
The criteria for recognition of revenue at the completion of production of precious metals and farm products include
a. an established market with quoted prices.
b. low additional costs of completion and selling.
c. units are interchangeable.
d. all of these. |
D |
sale has been made. Which of the following statements is not true?
a. Examples involve precious metals or farm equipment.
b. The products possess immediate marketability at quoted prices.
c. No significant costs are involved in selling the product.
d. All of these statements are true. |
A |
For which of the following products is it appropriate to recognize revenue at the completion of production even though no sale has been made?
a. Automobiles
b. Large appliances
c. Single family residential units
d. Precious metals |
D |
When there is a significant increase in the estimated total contract costs but the increase does not eliminate all profit on the contract, which of the following is correct?
a. Under both the percentage-of-completion and the completed-contract methods, the estimated cost increase requires a current period adjustment of excess gross profit recognized on the project in prior periods.
b. Under the percentage-of-completion method only, the estimated cost increase requires a current period adjustment of excess gross profit recognized on the project in prior periods.
c. Under the completed-contract method only, the estimated cost increase requires a current period adjustment of excess gross profit recognized on the project in prior periods.
d. No current period adjustment is required. |
B |
Deferred gross profit on installment sales is generally treated as a(n)
a. deduction from installment accounts receivable.
b. deduction from installment sales.
c. unearned revenue and classified as a current liability.
d. deduction from gross profit on sales. |
C |
The installment-sales method of recognizing profit for accounting purposes is acceptable if
a. collections in the year of sale do not exceed 30% of the total sales price.
b. an unrealized profit account is credited.
c. collection of the sales price is not reasonably assured.
d. the method is consistently used for all sales of similar merchandise. |
C |
The method most commonly used to report defaults and repossessions is
a. provide no basis for the repossessed asset thereby recognizing a loss.
b. record the repossessed merchandise at fair value, recording a gain or loss if appropriate.
c. record the repossessed merchandise at book value, recording no gain or loss.
d. none of these. |
B |
Under the installment-sales method,
a. revenue, costs, and gross profit are recognized proportionate to the cash that is received from the sale of the product.
b. gross profit is deferred proportionate to cash uncollected from sale of the product, but total revenues and costs are recognized at the point of sale.
c. gross profit is not recognized until the amount of cash received exceeds the cost of the item sold.
d. revenues and costs are recognized proportionate to the cash received from the sale of the product, but gross profit is deferred until all cash is received. |
B |
The realization of income on installment sales transactions involves
a. recognition of the difference between the cash collected on installment sales and the cash expenses incurred.
b. deferring the net income related to installment sales and recognizing the income as cash is collected.
c. deferring gross profit while recognizing operating or financial expenses in the period incurred.
d. deferring gross profit and all additional expenses related to installment sales until cash is ultimately collected. |
C |
A manufacturer of large equipment sells on an installment basis to customers with questionable credit ratings. Which of the following methods of revenue recognition is least likely to overstate the amount of gross profit reported?
a. At the time of completion of the equipment (completion of production method)
b. At the date of delivery (sales method)
c. The installment-sales method
d. The cost-recovery method |
D |
A seller is properly using the cost-recovery method for a sale. Interest will be earned on the future payments. Which of the following statements is not correct?
a. After all costs have been recovered, any additional cash collections are included in income.
b. Interest revenue may be recognized before all costs have been recovered.
c. The deferred gross profit is offset against the related receivable on the balance sheet.
d. Subsequent income statements report the gross profit as a separate item of revenue when it is recognized as earned. |
B |
Under the cost-recovery method of revenue recognition,
a. income is recognized on a proportionate basis as the cash is received on the sale of the product.
b. income is recognized when the cash received from the sale of the product is greater than the cost of the product.
c. income is recognized immediately.
d. none of these. |
B |
Winser, Inc. is engaged in extensive exploration for water in Utah. If, upon discovery of water, Winser does not recognize any revenue from water sales until the sales exceed the costs of exploration, the basis of revenue recognition being employed is the
a. production basis.
b. cash (or collection) basis.
c. sales (or accrual) basis.
d. cost recovery basis. |
D |
The deposit method of revenue recognition is used when
a. the product can be marketed at quoted prices and units are interchangeable.
b. cash is received before the sales transaction is complete.
c. the contract is short-term or the percentage-of-completion method can't be used.
d. there are no significant costs of distribution. |
B |
The cost-recovery method
a. is prohibited under current GAAP due to its conservative nature.
b. requires a company to defer profit recognition until all cash payments are received from the buyer.
c. is used by sellers when there is a reasonable basis for estimating collectibility.
d. recognizes total revenue and total cost of goods sold in the period of sale. |
D |
Types of franchising arrangements include all of the following except
a. service sponsor-retailer.
b. wholesaler-service sponsor.
c. manufacturer-wholesaler.
d. wholesaler-retailer. |
B |
In consignment sales, the consignee
a. records the merchandise as an asset on its books.
b. records a liability for the merchandise held on consignment.
c. recognizes revenue when it ships merchandise to the consignor.
d. prepares an "account report" for the consignor which shows sales, expenses, and cash receipts. |
D |
Some of the initial franchise fee may be allocated to
a. continuing franchise fees.
b. interest revenue on the future installments.
c. options to purchase the franchisee's business.
d. All of these may reduce the amount of the initial franchise fee that is recognized as revenue. |
D |
Continuing franchise fees should be recorded by the franchisor
a. as revenue when earned and receivable from the franchisee.
b. as revenue when received.
c. in accordance with the accounting procedures specified in the franchise agreement.
d. as revenue only after the balance of the initial franchise fee has been collected. |
A |
Occasionally a franchise agreement grants the franchisee the right to make future bargain purchases of equipment or supplies. When recording the initial franchise fee, the franchisor should
a. increase revenue recognized from the initial franchise fee by the amount of the expected future purchases.
b. record a portion of the initial franchise fee as unearned revenue which will increase the selling price when the franchisee subsequently makes the bargain purchases.
c. defer recognition of any revenue from the initial franchise fee until the bargain purchases are made.
d. None of these. |
B |
A franchise agreement grants the franchisor an option to purchase the franchisee's business. It is probable that the option will be exercised. When recording the initial franchise fee, the franchisor should
a. record the entire initial franchise fee as a deferred credit which will reduce the franchisor's investment in the purchased outlet when the option is exercised.
b. record the entire initial franchise fee as unearned revenue which will reduce the amount of cash paid when the option is exercised.
c. record the portion of the initial franchise fee which is attributable to the bargain purchase option as a reduction of the future amounts receivable from the franchisee.
d. None of these. |
A |
Revenue is recognized by the consignor when the
a. goods are shipped to the consignee.
b. consignee receives the goods.
c. consignor receives an advance from the consignee.
d. consignor receives an account sales from the consignee. |
D |
Taxable income of a corporation
a. differs from accounting income due to differences in intraperiod allocation between the two methods of income determination.
b. differs from accounting income due to differences in interperiod allocation and permanent differences between the two methods of income determination.
c. is based on generally accepted accounting principles.
d. is reported on the corporation's income statement. |
B |
Taxable income of a corporation differs from pretax financial income because of
Permanent Temporary
Differences Differences
a. No No
b. No Yes
c. Yes Yes
d. Yes No |
C |
The deferred tax expense is the
a. increase in balance of deferred tax asset minus the increase in balance of deferred tax liability.
b. increase in balance of deferred tax liability minus the increase in balance of deferred tax asset.
c. increase in balance of deferred tax asset plus the increase in balance of deferred tax liability.
d. decrease in balance of deferred tax asset minus the increase in balance of deferred tax liability. |
B |
Machinery was acquired at the beginning of the year. Depreciation recorded during the life of the machinery could result in
Future Future
Taxable Amounts Deductible Amounts
a. Yes Yes
b. Yes No
c. No Yes
d. No No |
A |
At the December 31, 2010 balance sheet date, Unruh Corporation reports an accrued receivable for financial reporting purposes but not for tax purposes. When this asset is recovered in 2011, a future taxable amount will occur and
a. pretax financial income will exceed taxable income in 2011.
b. Unruh will record a decrease in a deferred tax liability in 2011.
c. total income tax expense for 2011 will exceed current tax expense for 2011.
d. Unruh will record an increase in a deferred tax asset in 2011. |
b |
Assuming a 40% statutory tax rate applies to all years involved, which of the following situations will give rise to reporting a deferred tax liability on the balance sheet?
I. A revenue is deferred for financial reporting purposes but not for tax purposes.
II. A revenue is deferred for tax purposes but not for financial reporting purposes.
III. An expense is deferred for financial reporting purposes but not for tax purposes.
IV. An expense is deferred for tax purposes but not for financial reporting purposes.
a. item II only
b. items I and II only
c. items II and III only
d. items I and IV only |
C |
A major distinction between temporary and permanent differences is
a. permanent differences are not representative of acceptable accounting practice.
b. temporary differences occur frequently, whereas permanent differences occur only once.
c. once an item is determined to be a temporary difference, it maintains that status; however, a permanent difference can change in status with the passage of time.
d. temporary differences reverse themselves in subsequent accounting periods, whereas permanent differences do not reverse. |
D |
Which of the following are temporary differences that are normally classified as expenses or losses that are deductible after they are recognized in financial income?
a. Advance rental receipts.
b. Product warranty liabilities.
c. Depreciable property.
d. Fines and expenses resulting from a violation of law. |
B |
Which of the following is a temporary difference classified as a revenue or gain that is taxable after it is recognized in financial income?
a. Subscriptions received in advance.
b. Prepaid royalty received in advance.
c. An installment sale accounted for on the accrual basis for financial reporting purposes and on the installment (cash) basis for tax purposes.
d. Interest received on a municipal obligation. |
C |
Which of the following differences would result in future taxable amounts?
a. Expenses or losses that are tax deductible after they are recognized in financial income.
b. Revenues or gains that are taxable before they are recognized in financial income.
c. Revenues or gains that are recognized in financial income but are never included in taxable income.
d. Expenses or losses that are tax deductible before they are recognized in financial income. |
D |
Stuart Corporation's taxable income differed from its accounting income computed for this past year. An item that would create a permanent difference in accounting and taxable incomes for Stuart would be
a. a balance in the Unearned Rent account at year end.
b. using accelerated depreciation for tax purposes and straight-line depreciation for book purposes.
c. a fine resulting from violations of OSHA regulations.
d. making installment sales during the year. |
C |
An example of a permanent difference is
a. proceeds from life insurance on officers.
b. interest expense on money borrowed to invest in municipal bonds.
c. insurance expense for a life insurance policy on officers.
d. all of these. |
d |
Which of the following will not result in a temporary difference?
a. Product warranty liabilities
b. Advance rental receipts
c. Installment sales
d. All of these will result in a temporary difference. |
D |
A company uses the equity method to account for an investment. This would result in what type of difference and in what type of deferred income tax?
Type of Difference Deferred Tax
a. Permanent Asset
b. Permanent Liability
c. Temporary Asset
d. Temporary Liability |
D |
A company records an unrealized loss on short-term securities. This would result in what type of difference and in what type of deferred income tax?
Type of Difference Deferred Tax
a. Temporary Liability
b. Temporary Asset
c. Permanent Liability
d. Permanent Asset |
B |
Which of the following temporary differences results in a deferred tax asset in the year the temporary difference originates?
I. Accrual for product warranty liability.
II. Subscriptions received in advance.
III. Prepaid insurance expense.
a. I and II only.
b. II only.
c. III only.
d. I and III only. |
A |
Which of the following is not considered a permanent difference?
a. Interest received on municipal bonds.
b. Fines resulting from violating the law.
c. Premiums paid for life insurance on a company's CEO when the company is the beneficiary.
d. Stock-based compensation expense |
D |
When a change in the tax rate is enacted into law, its effect on existing deferred income tax accounts should be
a. handled retroactively in accordance with the guidance related to changes in accounting principles.
b. considered, but it should only be recorded in the accounts if it reduces a deferred tax liability or increases a deferred tax asset.
c. reported as an adjustment to tax expense in the period of change.
d. applied to all temporary or permanent differences that arise prior to the date of the enactment of the tax rate change, but not subsequent to the date of the change. |
C |
Tax rates other than the current tax rate may be used to calculate the deferred income tax amount on the balance sheet if
a. it is probable that a future tax rate change will occur.
b. it appears likely that a future tax rate will be greater than the current tax rate.
c. the future tax rates have been enacted into law.
d. it appears likely that a future tax rate will be less than the current tax rate. |
C |
Recognition of tax benefits in the loss year due to a loss carryforward requires
a. the establishment of a deferred tax liability.
b. the establishment of a deferred tax asset.
c. the establishment of an income tax refund receivable.
d. only a note to the financial statements. |
B |
Recognizing a valuation allowance for a deferred tax asset requires that a company
a. consider all positive and negative information in determining the need for a valuation allowance.
b. consider only the positive information in determining the need for a valuation allowance.
c. take an aggressive approach in its tax planning.
d. pass a recognition threshold, after assuming that it will be audited by taxing authorities. |
A |
Uncertain tax positions
I. Are positions for which the tax authorities may disallow a deduction in whole or
in part.
II. Include instances in which the tax law is clear and in which the company believes
an audit is likely.
III. Give rise to tax expense by increasing payables or increasing a deferred
tax liability.
a. I, II, and III.
b. I and III only.
c. II only.
d. I only. |
D |
With regard to uncertain tax positions, the FASB requires that companies recognize a tax benefit when
a. it is probable and can be reasonably estimated.
b. there is at least a 51% probability that the uncertain tax position will be approved by the taxing authorities.
c. it is more likely than not that the tax position will be sustained upon audit.
d. Any of the above exist. |
C |
Major reasons for disclosure of deferred income tax information is (are)
a. better assessment of quality of earnings.
b. better predictions of future cash flows.
c. that it may be helpful in setting government policy.
d. all of these. |
D |
Accounting for income taxes can result in the reporting of deferred taxes as any of the following except
a. a current or long-term asset.
b. a current or long-term liability.
c. a contra-asset account.
d. All of these are acceptable methods of reporting deferred taxes. |
C |
Deferred taxes should be presented on the balance sheet
a. as one net debit or credit amount.
b. in two amounts: one for the net current amount and one for the net noncurrent amount.
c. in two amounts: one for the net debit amount and one for the net credit amount.
d. as reductions of the related asset or liability accounts. |
B |
rred tax amounts that are related to specific assets or liabilities should be classified as current or noncurrent based on
a. their expected reversal dates.
b. their debit or credit balance.
c. the length of time the deferred tax amounts will generate future tax deferral benefits.
d. the classification of the related asset or liability. |
D |
er, Inc. incurred a financial and taxable loss for 2010. Tanner therefore decided to use the carryback provisions as it had been profitable up to this year. How should the amounts related to the carryback be reported in the 2010 financial statements?
a. The reduction of the loss should be reported as a prior period adjustment.
b. The refund claimed should be reported as a deferred charge and amortized over five years.
c. The refund claimed should be reported as revenue in the current year.
d. The refund claimed should be shown as a reduction of the loss in 2010. |
D |
A deferred tax liability is classified on the balance sheet as either a current or a noncurrent liability. The current amount of a deferred tax liability should generally be
a. the net deferred tax consequences of temporary differences that will result in net taxable amounts during the next year.
b. totally eliminated from the financial statements if the amount is related to a noncurrent asset.
c. based on the classification of the related asset or liability for financial reporting purposes.
d. the total of all deferred tax consequences that are not expected to reverse in the operating period or one year, whichever is greater. |
C |
All of the following are procedures for the computation of deferred income taxes except to
a. identify the types and amounts of existing temporary differences.
b. measure the total deferred tax liability for taxable temporary differences.
c. measure the total deferred tax asset for deductible temporary differences and operating loss carrybacks.
d. All of these are procedures in computing deferred income taxes. |
C |
In determining the present value of the prospective benefits (often referred to as the projected benefit obligation), the following are considered by the actuary:
a. retirement and mortality rate.
b. interest rates.
c. benefit provisions of the plan.
d. all of these factors. |
D |
In a defined-benefit plan, the process of funding refers to
a. determining the projected benefit obligation.
b. determining the accumulated benefit obligation.
c. making the periodic contributions to a funding agency to ensure that funds are available to meet retirees' claims.
d. determining the amount that might be reported for pension expense. |
C |
In all pension plans, the accounting problems include all the following except
a. measuring the amount of pension obligation.
b. disclosing the status and effects of the plan in the financial statements.
c. allocating the cost of the plan to the proper periods.
d. determining the level of individual premiums. |
D |
a defined-contribution plan, a formula is used that
a. defines the benefits that the employee will receive at the time of retirement.
b. ensures that pension expense and the cash funding amount will be different.
c. requires an employer to contribute a certain sum each period based on the formula.
d. ensures that employers are at risk to make sure funds are available at retirement. |
C |
In a defined-benefit plan, a formula is used that
a. requires that the benefit of gain or the risk of loss from the assets contributed to the pension plan be borne by the employee.
b. defines the benefits that the employee will receive at the time of retirement.
c. requires that pension expense and the cash funding amount be the same.
d. defines the contribution the employer is to make; no promise is made concerning the ultimate benefits to be paid out to the employees. |
B |
Which of the following is not a characteristic of a defined-contribution pension plan?
a. The employer's contribution each period is based on a formula.
b. The benefits to be received by employees are usually determined by an employee's three highest years of salary defined by the terms of the plan.
c. The accounting for a defined-contribution plan is straightforward and uncomplicated.
d. The benefit of gain or the risk of loss from the assets contributed to the pension fund are borne by the employee. |
B |
In accounting for a defined-benefit pension plan
a. an appropriate funding pattern must be established to ensure that enough monies will be available at retirement to meet the benefits promised.
b. the employer's responsibility is simply to make a contribution each year based on the formula established in the plan.
c. the expense recognized each period is equal to the cash contribution.
d. the liability is determined based upon known variables that reflect future salary levels promised to employees. |
A |
Alternative methods exist for the measurement of the pension obligation (liability). Which measure requires the use of future salaries in its computation?
a. Vested benefit obligation
b. Accumulated benefit obligation
c. Projected benefit obligation
d. Restructured benefit obligation |
C |
The accumulated benefit obligation measures
a. the pension obligation on the basis of the plan formula applied to years of service to date and based on existing salary levels.
b. the pension obligation on the basis of the plan formula applied to years of service to date and based on future salary levels.
c. an estimated total benefit at retirement and then computes the level cost that will be sufficient, together with interest expected to accumulate at the assumed rate, to provide the total benefits at retirement.
d. the shortest possible period for funding to maximize the tax deduction. |
A |
The projected benefit obligation is the measure of pension obligation that
a. is required to be used for reporting the service cost component of pension expense.
b. requires pension expense to be determined solely on the basis of the plan formula applied to years of service to date and based on existing salary levels.
c. requires the longest possible period for funding to maximize the tax deduction.
d. is not sanctioned under generally accepted accounting principles for reporting the service cost component of pension expense. |
A |
Differing measures of the pension obligation can be based on
a. all years of service—both vested and nonvested—using current salary levels.
b. only the vested benefits using current salary levels.
c. both vested and nonvested service using future salaries.
d. all of these. |
D |
Vested benefits
a. usually require a certain minimum number of years of service.
b. are those that the employee is entitled to receive even if fired.
c. are not contingent upon additional service under the plan.
d. are defined by all of these. |
D |
The relationship between the amount funded and the amount reported for pension expense is as follows:
a. pension expense must equal the amount funded.
b. pension expense will be less than the amount funded.
c. pension expense will be more than the amount funded.
d. pension expense may be greater than, equal to, or less than the amount funded. |
D |
The computation of pension expense includes all the following except
a. service cost component measured using current salary levels.
b. interest on projected benefit obligation.
c. expected return on plan assets.
d. All of these are included in the computation. |
A |
In computing the service cost component of pension expense, the FASB concluded that
a. the accumulated benefit obligation provides a more realistic measure of the pension obligation on a going concern basis.
b. a company should employ an actuarial funding method to report pension expense that best reflects the cost of benefits to employees.
c. the projected benefit obligation using future compensation levels provides a realistic measure of present pension obligation and expense.
d. all of these. |
C |
The interest on the projected benefit obligation component of pension expense
a. reflects the incremental borrowing rate of the employer.
b. reflects the rates at which pension benefits could be effectively settled.
c. is the same as the expected return on plan assets.
d. may be stated implicitly or explicitly when reported. |
B |
One component of pension expense is expected return on plan assets. Plan assets include
a. contributions made by the employer and contributions made by the employee when a contributory plan of some type is involved.
b. plan assets still under the control of the company.
c. only assets reported on the balance sheet of the employer as prepaid pension cost.
d. none of these. |
A |
The actual return on plan assets
a. is equal to the change in the fair value of the plan assets during the year.
b. includes interest, dividends, and changes in the market value of the fund assets.
c. is equal to the expected rate of return times the fair value of the plan assets at the beginning of the period.
d. all of these. |
B |
In accounting for a pension plan, any difference between the pension cost charged to expense and the payments into the fund should be reported as
a. an offset to the liability for prior service cost.
b. pension asset/liability.
c. as other comprehensive income (G/L)
d. as accumulated other comprehensive income (PSC). |
B |
Which of the following items should be included in pension expense calculated by an employer who sponsors a defined-benefit pension plan for its employees?
Amortization of
Fair value prior
of plan assets service cost
a. Yes Yes
b. Yes No
c. No Yes
d. No No |
C |
A corporation has a defined-benefit plan. A pension liability will result at the end of the year if the
a. projected benefit obligation exceeds the fair value of the plan assets.
b. fair value of the plan assets exceeds the projected benefit obligation.
c. amount of employer contributions exceeds the pension expense.
d. amount of pension expense exceeds the amount of employer contributions. |
A |
When a company adopts a pension plan, prior service costs should be charged to
a. accumulated other comprehensive income (PSC).
b. operations of prior periods.
c. Other comprehensive income (PSC).
d. retained earnings. |
C |
When a company amends a pension plan, for accounting purposes, prior service costs should be
a. treated as a prior period adjustment because no future periods are benefited.
b. amortized in accordance with procedures used for income tax purposes.
c. recorded in other comprehensive income (PSC).
d. reported as an expense in the period the plan is amended. |
C |
Prior service cost is amortized on a
a. straight-line basis over the expected future years of service.
b. years-of-service method or on a straight-line basis over the average remaining service life of active employees.
c. straight-line basis over 15 years.
d. straight-line basis over the average remaining service life of active employees or 15 years, whichever is longer. |
B |
Whenever a defined-benefit plan is amended and credit is given to employees for years of service provided before the date of amendment
a. both the accumulated benefit obligation and the projected benefit obligation are usually greater than before.
b. both the accumulated benefit obligation and the projected benefit obligation are usually less than before.
c. the expense and the liability should be recognized at the time of the plan change.
d. the expense should be recognized immediately, but the liability may be deferred until a reasonable basis for its determination has been identified. |
A |
The actuarial gains or losses that result from changes in the projected benefit obligation are called
Asset Liability
Gains & Losses Gains & Losses
a. Yes Yes
b. No No
c. Yes No
d. No Yes |
D |
Gains and losses that relate to the computation of pension expense should be
a. recorded currently as an adjustment to pension expense in the period incurred.
b. recorded currently and in the future by applying the corridor method which provides the amount to be amortized.
c. amortized over a 15-year period.
d. recorded only if a loss is determined. |
B |
The fair value of pension plan assets is used to determine the corridor and to calculate the expected return on plan assets.
Expected Return
Corridor on Plan Assets
a. Yes Yes
b. Yes No
c. No Yes
d. No No |
A |
A pension fund gain or loss that is caused by a plant closing should be
a. recognized immediately as a gain or loss on the plant closing.
b. spread over the current year and future years.
c. charged or credited to the current pension expense.
d. recognized as a prior period adjustment. |
A |
A pension liability is reported when
a. the projected benefit obligation exceeds the fair value of pension plan assets.
b. the accumulated benefit obligation is less than the fair value of pension plan assets.
c. the pension expense reported for the period is greater than the funding amount for the same period.
d. accumulated |
A |
A pension asset is reported when
a. the accumulated benefit obligation exceeds the fair value of pension plan assets.
b. the accumulated benefit obligation exceeds the fair value of pension plan assets, but a prior service cost exists.
c. pension plan assets at fair value exceed the accumulated benefit obligation.
d. pension plan assets at fair value exceed the projected benefit obligation. |
D |
Which of the following statements is correct?
a. There is an account titled Pension Asset / Liability.
b. There is an account titled Accumulated Benefit Obligation.
c. Accumulated Other Comprehensive Income should be reported in the liability section of the balance sheet.
d. Other comprehensive income (PSC) should be included in net income. |
A |
According to the FASB, recognition of a liability is required when the projected benefit obligation exceeds the fair value of plan assets. Conversely, when the fair value of plan assets exceeds the projected benefit obligation, the Board
a. requires recognition of an asset.
b. requires recognition of an asset if the excess fair value of plan assets exceeds the corridor amount.
c. recommends recognition of an asset but does not require such recognition.
d. does not permit recognition of an asset. |
A |
Which of the following disclosures of pension plan information would not normally be required?
a. The major components of pension expense
b. The amount of prior service cost changed or credited in previous years.
c. The funded status of the plan and the amounts recognized in the financial statements
d. The rates used in measuring the benefit amounts |
B |
The main purpose of the Pension Benefit Guaranty Corporation is to
a. require minimum funding of pensions.
b. require plan administrators to publish a comprehensive description and summary of their plans.
c. administer terminated plans and to impose liens on the employer's assets for certain unfunded pension liabilities.
d. all of these. |
c |
Which of the following statements is true about postretirement health care benefits?
a. They are generally funded.
b. The benefits are well-defined and level in dollar amount.
c. The beneficiary is the retiree, spouse, and other dependents.
d. The benefit is payable monthly. |
C |
Which of the following disclosures of postretirement benefits would not be required by professional pronouncements?
a. Postretirement expense for the period
b. A schedule showing changes in postretirement benefits and plan assets during the year
c. The amount of the EPBO
d. The assumptions and rates used in computing the EPBO and APBO |
C |
A postretirement asset is computed as the excess of the
a. expected postretirement benefit obligation over the fair value of plan assets.
b. accumulated postretirement benefit obligation over the fair value of plan assets.
c. fair value of plan assets over the accumulated postretirement benefit obligation.
d. accumulated postretirement benefit obligation over the fair value of plan assets, but not vice versa. |
C |
Postretirement benefits may include all of the following except
a. severance pay to laid-off employees.
b. dental care.
c. legal and tax services.
d. tuition assistance. |
A |
Gains or losses can represent changes in
a. EPBO or the fair value of pension plan assets.
b. EPBO or the book value of pension plan assets.
c. APBO or the fair value of pension plan assets.
d. APBO or the book value of pension plan assets. |
C |
Which of the following statements about the expected postretirement benefit obligation (EPBO) is not correct?
a. The EPBO is an actuarial present value.
b. The EPBO is recorded in the accounts.
c. The EPBO is used in measuring periodic expense.
d. All of these are correct. |
B |
Which of the following statements about the recognition of a prior service cost related to a postretirement obligation is correct?
a. The prior service amount is recognized in the income statement in the current period.
b. The prior service cost is recognized in the income statement net of tax.
c. Restatement of previously issued annual financial statements is required.
d. The prior service cost amount affects comprehensive income in the current period. |
D |
Which of the following is recognized in the accounts and in the financial statements?
a. Accumulated postretirement benefit obligation
b. Postretirement asset / liability
c. Expected postretirement benefit obligation
d. All of these. |
B |
Major reasons why a company may become involved in leasing to other companies is (are)
a. interest revenue.
b. high residual values.
c. tax incentives.
d. all of these. |
D |
Which of the following is an advantage of leasing?
a. Off-balance-sheet financing
b. Less costly financing
c. 100% financing at fixed rates
d. All of these |
D |
Which of the following best describes current practice in accounting for leases?
a. Leases are not capitalized.
b. Leases similar to installment purchases are capitalized.
c. All long-term leases are capitalized.
d. All leases are capitalized. |
B |
While only certain leases are currently accounted for as a sale or purchase, there is theoretic justification for considering all leases to be sales or purchases. The principal reason that supports this idea is that
a. all leases are generally for the economic life of the property and the residual value of the property at the end of the lease is minimal.
b. at the end of the lease the property usually can be purchased by the lessee.
c. a lease reflects the purchase or sale of a quantifiable right to the use of property.
d. during the life of the lease the lessee can effectively treat the property as if it were owned by the lessee. |
C |
An essential element of a lease conveyance is that the
a. lessor conveys less than his or her total interest in the property.
b. lessee provides a sinking fund equal to one year's lease payments.
c. property that is the subject of the lease agreement must be held for sale by the lessor prior to the drafting of the lease agreement.
d. term of the lease is substantially equal to the economic life of the leased property. |
A |
What impact does a bargain purchase option have on the present value of the minimum lease payments computed by the lessee?
a. No impact as the option does not enter into the transaction until the end of the lease term.
b. The lessee must increase the present value of the minimum lease payments by the present value of the option price.
c. The lessee must decrease the present value of the minimum lease payments by the present value of the option price.
d. The minimum lease payments would be increased by the present value of the option price if, at the time of the lease agreement, it appeared certain that the lessee would exercise the option at the end of the lease and purchase the asset at the option price. |
B |
The amount to be recorded as the cost of an asset under capital lease is equal to the
a. present value of the minimum lease payments.
b. present value of the minimum lease payments or the fair value of the asset, whichever is lower.
c. present value of the minimum lease payments plus the present value of any unguaranteed residual value.
d. carrying value of the asset on the lessor's books. |
B |
The methods of accounting for a lease by the lessee are
a. operating and capital lease methods.
b. operating, sales, and capital lease methods.
c. operating and leveraged lease methods.
d. none of these. |
A |
Which of the following is a correct statement of one of the capitalization criteria?
a. The lease transfers ownership of the property to the lessor.
b. The lease contains a purchase option.
c. The lease term is equal to or more than 75% of the estimated economic life of the leased property.
d. The minimum lease payments (excluding executory costs) equal or exceed 90% of the fair value of the leased property. |
C |
Minimum lease payments may include a
a. penalty for failure to renew.
b. bargain purchase option.
c. guaranteed residual value.
d. any of these. |
D |
Executory costs include
a. maintenance.
b. property taxes.
c. insurance.
d. all of these. |
D |
In computing the present value of the minimum lease payments, the lessee should
a. use its incremental borrowing rate in all cases.
b. use either its incremental borrowing rate or the implicit rate of the lessor, whichever is higher, assuming that the implicit rate is known to the lessee.
c. use either its incremental borrowing rate or the implicit rate of the lessor, whichever is lower, assuming that the implicit rate is known to the lessee.
d. none of these. |
C |
In computing depreciation of a leased asset, the lessee should subtract
a. a guaranteed residual value and depreciate over the term of the lease.
b. an unguaranteed residual value and depreciate over the term of the lease.
c. a guaranteed residual value and depreciate over the life of the asset.
d. an unguaranteed residual value and depreciate over the life of the asset. |
A |
In the earlier years of a lease, from the lessee's perspective, the use of the
a. capital method will enable the lessee to report higher income, compared to the operating method.
b. capital method will cause debt to increase, compared to the operating method.
c. operating method will cause income to decrease, compared to the capital method.
d. operating method will cause debt to increase, compared to the capital method. |
B |
A lessee with a capital lease containing a bargain purchase option should depreciate the leased asset over the
a. asset's remaining economic life.
b. term of the lease.
c. life of the asset or the term of the lease, whichever is shorter.
d. life of the asset or the term of the lease, whichever is longer. |
A |
Which of the following would not be included in the Lease Receivable account?
a. Guaranteed residual value
b. Unguaranteed residual value
c. A bargain purchase option
d. All would be included |
D |
In a lease that is appropriately recorded as a direct-financing lease by the lessor, unearned income
a. should be amortized over the period of the lease using the effective interest method.
b. should be amortized over the period of the lease using the straight-line method.
c. does not arise.
d. should be recognized at the lease's expiration. |
A |
In order to properly record a direct-financing lease, the lessor needs to know how to calculate the lease receivable. The lease receivable in a direct-financing lease is best defined as
a. the amount of funds the lessor has tied up in the asset which is the subject of the direct-financing lease.
b. the difference between the lease payments receivable and the fair market value of the leased property.
c. the present value of minimum lease payments.
d. the total book value of the asset less any accumulated depreciation recorded by the lessor prior to the lease agreement. |
C |
If the residual value of a leased asset is guaranteed by a third party
a. it is treated by the lessee as no residual value.
b. the third party is also liable for any lease payments not paid by the lessee.
c. the net investment to be recovered by the lessor is reduced.
d. it is treated by the lessee as an additional payment and by the lessor as realized at the end of the lease term. |
D |
When lessors account for residual values related to leased assets, they
a. always include the residual value because they always assume the residual value will be realized.
b. include the unguaranteed residual value in sales revenue.
c. recognize more gross profit on a sales-type lease with a guaranteed residual value than on a sales-type lease with an unguaranteed residual value.
d. All of the above are true with regard to lessors and residual values. |
A |
The primary difference between a direct-financing lease and a sales-type lease is the
a. manner in which rental receipts are recorded as rental income.
b. amount of the depreciation recorded each year by the lessor.
c. recognition of the manufacturer's or dealer's profit at the inception of the lease.
d. allocation of initial direct costs by the lessor to periods benefited by the lease arrangements. |
C |
A lessor with a sales-type lease involving an unguaranteed residual value available to the lessor at the end of the lease term will report sales revenue in the period of inception of the lease at which of the following amounts?
a. The minimum lease payments plus the unguaranteed residual value.
b. The present value of the minimum lease payments.
c. The cost of the asset to the lessor, less the present value of any unguaranteed residual value.
d. The present value of the minimum lease payments plus the present value of the unguaranteed residual value. |
B |
For a sales-type lease,
a. the sales price includes the present value of the unguaranteed residual value.
b. the present value of the guaranteed residual value is deducted to determine the cost of goods sold.
c. the gross profit will be the same whether the residual value is guaranteed or unguaranteed.
d. none of these. |
C |
Which of the following statements is correct?
a. In a direct-financing lease, initial direct costs are added to the net investment in the lease.
b. In a sales-type lease, initial direct costs are expensed in the year of incurrence.
c. For operating leases, initial direct costs are deferred and allocated over the lease term.
d. All of these. |
D |
The Lease Liability account should be disclosed as
a. all current liabilities.
b. all noncurrent liabilities.
c. current portions in current liabilities and the remainder in noncurrent liabilities.
d. deferred credits. |
C |
To avoid leased asset capitalization, companies can devise lease agreements that fail to satisfy any of the four leasing criteria. Which of the following is not one of the ways to accomplish this goal?
a. Lessee uses a higher interest rate than that used by lessor.
b. Set the lease term at something less than 75% of the estimated useful life of the property.
c. Write in a bargain purchase option.
d. Use a third party to guarantee the asset's residual value. |
C |
If the lease in a sale-leaseback transaction meets one of the four leasing criteria and is therefore accounted for as a capital lease, who records the asset on its books and which party records interest expense during the lease period?
Party recording the Party recording
asset on its books interest expense
a. Seller-lessee Purchaser-lessor
b. Purchaser-lessor Seller-lessee
c. Purchaser-lessor Purchaser-lessor
d. Seller-lessee Seller-lessee |
D |
When a company sells property and then leases it back, any gain on the sale should usually be
a. recognized in the current year.
b. recognized as a prior period adjustment.
c. recognized at the end of the lease.
d. deferred and recognized as income over the term of the lease. |
D |
Which of the following is not treated as a change in accounting principle?
a. A change from LIFO to FIFO for inventory valuation
b. A change to a different method of depreciation for plant assets
c. A change from full-cost to successful efforts in the extractive industry
d. A change from completed-contract to percentage-of-completion |
B |
Which of the following is not a retrospective-type accounting change?
a. Completed-contract method to the percentage-of-completion method for long-term contracts
b. LIFO method to the FIFO method for inventory valuation
c. Sum-of-the-years'-digits method to the straight-line method
d. "Full cost" method to another method in the extractive industry |
C |
Which of the following is accounted for as a change in accounting principle?
a. A change in the estimated useful life of plant assets.
b. A change from the cash basis of accounting to the accrual basis of accounting.
c. A change from expensing immaterial expenditures to deferring and amortizing them as they become material.
d. A change in inventory valuation from average cost to FIFO. |
D |
A company changes from straight-line to an accelerated method of calculating depreciation, which will be similar to the method used for tax purposes. The entry to record this change should include a
a. credit to Accumulated Depreciation.
b. debit to Retained Earnings in the amount of the difference on prior years.
c. debit to Deferred Tax Asset.
d. credit to Deferred Tax Liability. |
A |
Which of the following disclosures is required for a change from sum-of-the-years-digits to straight-line?
a. The cumulative effect on prior years, net of tax, in the current retained earnings statement
b. Restatement of prior years' income statements
c. Recomputation of current and future years' depreciation
d. All of these are required. |
C |
A company changes from percentage-of-completion to completed-contract, which is the method used for tax purposes. The entry to record this change should include a
a. debit to Construction in Process.
b. debit to Loss on Long-term Contracts in the amount of the difference on prior years, net of tax.
c. debit to Retained Earnings in the amount of the difference on prior years, net of tax.
d. credit to Deferred Tax Liability. |
C |
Stone Company changed its method of pricing inventories from FIFO to LIFO. What type of accounting change does this represent?
a. A change in accounting estimate for which the financial statements for prior periods included for comparative purposes should be presented as previously reported.
b. A change in accounting principle for which the financial statements for prior periods included for comparative purposes should be presented as previously reported.
c. A change in accounting estimate for which the financial statements for prior periods included for comparative purposes should be restated.
d. A change in accounting principle for which the financial statements for prior periods included for comparative purposes should be restated. |
B |
Which type of accounting change should always be accounted for in current and future periods?
a. Change in accounting principle
b. Change in reporting entity
c. Change in accounting estimate
d. Correction of an error |
C |
Which of the following is (are) the proper time period(s) to record the effects of a change in accounting estimate?
a. Current period and prospectively
b. Current period and retrospectively
c. Retrospectively only
d. Current period only |
A |
When a company decides to switch from the double-declining balance method to the straight-line method, this change should be handled as a
a. change in accounting principle.
b. change in accounting estimate.
c. prior period adjustment.
d. correction of an error. |
B |
The estimated life of a building that has been depreciated 30 years of an originally estimated life of 50 years has been revised to a remaining life of 10 years. Based on this information, the accountant should
a. continue to depreciate the building over the original 50-year life.
b. depreciate the remaining book value over the remaining life of the asset.
c. adjust accumulated depreciation to its appropriate balance, through net income, based on a 40-year life, and then depreciate the adjusted book value as though the estimated life had always been 40 years. |
B |
Which of the following describes a change in reporting entity?
a. A company acquires a subsidiary that is to be accounted for as a purchase.
b. A manufacturing company expands its market from regional to nationwide.
c. A company divests itself of a European branch sales office.
d. Changing the companies included in combined financial statements. |
D |
An example of a correction of an error in previously issued financial statements is a change
a. from the FIFO method of inventory valuation to the LIFO method.
b. in the service life of plant assets, based on changes in the economic environment.
c. from the cash basis of accounting to the accrual basis of accounting.
d. in the tax assessment related to a prior period. |
C |
Counterbalancing errors do not include
a. errors that correct themselves in two years.
b. errors that correct themselves in three years.
c. an understatement of purchases.
d. an overstatement of unearned revenue. |
B |
A company using a perpetual inventory system neglected to record a purchase of merchandise on account at year end. This merchandise was omitted from the year-end physical count. How will these errors affect assets, liabilities, and stockholders' equity at year end and net income for the year?
Assets Liabilities Stockholders' Equity Net Income
a. No effect Understate Overstate Overstate.
b. No effect Overstate Understate Understate.
c. Understate Understate No effect No effect.
d. Understate No effect Understate Understate. |
C |
If, at the end of a period, a company erroneously excluded some goods from its ending inventory and also erroneously did not record the purchase of these goods in its accounting records, these errors would cause
a. the ending inventory and retained earnings to be understated.
b. the ending inventory, cost of goods sold, and retained earnings to be understated.
c. no effect on net income, working capital, and retained earnings.
d. cost of goods sold and net income to be understated. |
C |