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psychological tests: a. pertain only to overt behavior. b. always have right or wrong answers. c. do not attempt to measure traits. d. measure characteristics of human behavior.
D
achievement, aptitude and intelligence can be encompassed by the term: a. human potential. b. human traits. c. human personality. d. human ability.
D
the main purpose of psychological testing is to evaluate: a. covert behavior. b. individual differences. c. personality traits. d. overt behavior.
B
When you gather information through verbal interaction, you are using a(n) a. individual test. b. interview. c. group test. d. brainstorming.
B
A test that yields dependable and consistent results is ____. a. meaningful b. objective c. reliable d. valid
C
6. Test administration refers to the a. construction of the test. b. validation of the test. c. act of taking a test. d. act of giving a test.
D
The use of test batteries was common by the time of the a. Ling Dynasty. b. Han Dynasty. c. Tam Dynasty. d. Nam Dynasty.
B
Two or more tests that are given together and relate seemingly diverse topics are called a. structured. b. unstructured. c. batteries. d. portfolios.
C
Sir Francis Galton set out to show a. that some humans possessed characteristics that made them more fit than other humans. b. that humans did not differ significantly from each other. c. that life evolved on this planet partially because of individual differences among individual form…
A
The work of Weber and Fechner represent which foundation of psychological testing? a. individual differences b. psychophysical measurement c. survival of the fittest d. Darwinian evolution
B
Statistical procedures that summarize and describe a series of observations are called a. inferential statistics. b. descriptive statistics. c. scales. d. ratios.
B
Statistical procedures that allow one to make inferences about large groups by examining a smaller sample are called a. populations. b. descriptive statistics. c. inferential statistics. d. ratios.
C
Which of the following scales has the properties of magnitude, absolute zero, and equal intervals? a. ordinal b. interval c. nominal d. ratio
D
Which of the following scales would be used when the information is qualitative rather than quantitative? a. ordinal b. interval c. nominal d. ratio
C
A percentile rank is a measure of a. actual performance. b. relative performance. c. absolute performance. d. peak performance.
B
The standard deviation a. reflects the similarity among a set of scores. b. equals the sum of all scores minus the mean squared. c. is an approximation of the average deviation around the mean. d. always equals 0.
C
If you are given = 57 and S = 4, what is the variance? a. 2.0 b. 14.25 c. 16.0 d. 30.5
C
When deviation scores around the mean are added up, their mean will be a. indeterminate. b. < 0. c. 0. d. > 0.
C
If a score is equal to the mean, its Z score will be a. < 0. b. exactly 0. c. > 0. d. impossible to calculate.
B
Approximately what percentage of scores falls below the mean in a standard normal distribution? a. 1% b. 16% c. 34% d. 50%
D
A scatter diagram is a. a bivariate plot of individual data points. b. a univariate plot of individual data points. c. a form of the stem and leaf display. d. a method for calculating variance.
A
If the line that comes closest to all points in a scatter diagram is perfectly straight, the correlation between the two variables is a. linear. b. curvilinear. c. positive. d. unknown.
A
If the line that comes closest to all points in a scatter diagram is perfectly straight, the correlation between the two variables is a. linear. b. curvilinear. c. positive. d. unknown.
C
Correlation coefficients describe the a. degree of linearity of relation between X and Y. b. mean of X and Y. c. direction and magnitude of relationship between X and Y. d. causality of relationships between X and Y.
C
The best-fitting straight line through a set of points in a scatter diagram is known as the a. regression line. b. linear line. c. correlation line. d. perfect correlation.
A
In the linear equation Y´ = a + bX, "a" is called a. the regression coefficient. b. the intercept. c. the actual score. d. the predicted score.
B
When you know nothing about a person's academic ability, the best estimate of his or her academic ability should be based on the a. mean. b. Z score. c. criterion. d. correlation.
A
The difference between the observed and predicted score is a. the residual. b. the intercept. c. the Z score. d. correlation coefficient.
A
Which of the following is true of the best-fitting line? a. It establishes statistical significance. b. It increases as the correlation decreases. c. It is rarely useful for prediction. d. It minimizes residuals.
D
The coefficient of determination is the a. number of degrees of freedom. b. difference between predicted and observed values of Y. c. mean. d. squared correlation coefficient.
D
Classical Test Theory assumes that a. errors are systematic. b. errors are random. c. true scores cannot be estimated. d. the length of a test has no bearing on its reliability.
B
Theoretically, if Susie repeatedly took the 6th grade achievement test, you would be able to find her true score by finding the ____ of the distribution of her scores. a. mean b. standard deviation c. variance d. standard error of measurement
A
If you have three clocks in your house, and every clock is 10 minutes fast, this is an example of a. systematic error. b. random error. c. measurement error. d. a rubber yardstick.
A
we can get an idea of how much measurement error is present in a score through the a. true score. b. observed score. c. standard error of the mean. d. standard error of measurement.
A
Professor Pine constructed five different short history tests by randomly drawing questions from the huge pool of all possible questions about the current material. He has created a. randomly parallel tests. b. a large sample size. c. systematic errors. d. attenuation effects.
A
Tests designed according to item response theory a. are no longer considered useful. b. can only be used with non-objective material c. yield more reliable results with fewer items d. provide low-tech methods for field use.
C
Upon repeated applications of the same test, performance on the second application may be affected by previous experience on the test. This is known as a. attenuation. b. a carryover effect. c. shrinkage. d. selected recall.
B
The Spearman Brown formula corrects for deflated reliability due to a. half-length tests. b. small sample size. c. systematic error. d. poor test item construction.
A
A split-half correlation, KR 20, and coefficient alpha are all used to evaluate a. standard errors of measurement. b. internal consistency. c. variance. d. validity.
B
The difference between KR 20 and coefficient alpha is a. KR 20 can be used to evaluate time sampling problems while alpha cannot. b. Alpha can be used to evaluate time sampling problems while KR 20 cannot. c. KR 20 can only be used for items scored right or wrong but Alpha can be used …
C
How does the current edition of Standards for Educational and Psychological Testing conceptualize validity? a. Validity is a non-statistical measure for non-quantitative tests. b. Validity should only be assessed when reliability is low. c. Validity is a unitary concept that represents…
C
Why does the current edition of Standards for Educational and Psychological Testing reject face validity? a. By definition, all tests have face validity. b. Face validity in not technically a type of validity. c. No reliable measures of face validity have been found. d. Face validity …
B
Which type of validity is most important for educational tests? a. face b. content c. concurrent d. predictive
B
According to Campbell and Fiske, what types of evidence are required for a test to be meaningful? a. reliability and validity b. content and construct c. convergent and divergent d. quantitative and qualitative
C
Which of the following is true of the relationship between reliability and validity? a. It is possible to create a highly reliable test that lacks validity. b. If a test lacks reliability, it is important to emphasize its validity. c. High levels of validity are often associated with l…
A
If the test score forecasts some criterion, the test has a. face validity. b. content validity. c. predictive validity. d. concurrent validity.
C
The advantage of using a test that is "face valid" is that a. the appearance of validity can help motivate test-takers because they can see that the test is relevant. b. it assures that the items are properly sampled from the domain of content. c. face validity is an important componen…
A
Which type of validity is unique because it is not statistically-based? a. predictive b. concurrent c. content d. Construct
C
The proportion of variation in the criterion that is knowable in advance from knowledge of the test scores can be found by a. construct-irrelevant variance. b. the validity coefficient. c. squaring the validity coefficient. d. the square root of the validity coefficient.
C
Which of the following would be a cause for concern when assessing the validity of an employment test? a. The validity study was done on a somewhat small sample. b. The test correlates highly with other tests of known validity. c. The test was only validated on an all white, male popul…
C
tendency for test takers to agree on most of the items is called a(n) a. guessing threshold. b. acquiescence response set. c. item difficulty. d. the miss rate.
B
This test item is an example of a. polytomous format. b. dichotomous format. c. Likert format. d. category format.
A
In order to correct for guessing a. a correction formula can be used. b. distractors should be eliminated. c. the number of items should be increased. d. distractors should be increased.
A
According The following is an item from an attitude scale: Physical punishment is essential in order to control children. Strongly disagree Disagree Neither agree or disagree Agree Strongly agree This item is in the a. category format. b. Likert format. c. dichotomous format. d…
B
A multiple-choice test with five options has a chance performance level of a. .50. b. .25. c. .20. d. .10.
C
If 50% of the individuals taking a particular test get a certain item correct, the difficulty (or easiness) level of that item would be a. .05. b. .25. c. .50. d. .10.
C
The method of item analysis which looks at the correlation between performance on an item (correct or incorrect) and total test score is a. the extreme group method. b. the tetrachoric method. c. the point-biserial method. d. the item characteristic curve method.
C
Refer to Exhibit 6-1. Which item discriminates well at low levels of performance but not at high levels? a. item a b. item b c. item c d. item d e. item e
C
Refer to Exhibit 6-1. Which item is inversely related to performance on the test? a. item a b. item b c. item c d. item d e. item e
B
Refer to Exhibit 6-1. Which item is unrelated to total test score performance? a. item a b. item b c. item c d. item d
A
In general, studies have indicated that the race of the examiner a. should be the same as that of the subject. b. should be different than that of the subject. c. is unrelated to test performance. d. is not as important as sex of the examiner.
C
Studies have demonstrated that a. disapproving comments by an examiner can hinder test performance. b. disapproving comments by the examiner can actually motivate children and enhance their performance. c. too much approval by the examiner can hinder performance. d. there is no relati…
A
The "Rosenthal effect" occurs when a. race of the tester produces a bias. b. the administrators' expectations influence the respondents' scores. c. test-takers do poorly because they are fatigued. d. the gender of the test administrator is different than that of the examinee.
B
Studies on the effect of reinforcement upon intelligence test performance by African-American children (by Terrell and colleagues) suggest that a. African-American children will improve their performance if given simple verbal praise such as "Excellent performance". b. African-American …
C
Patty has just received a graduate degree in psychology and has been hired by a local organization to administer the WAIS-R. They should a. have no qualms about her qualifications for this position because she has a degree. b. have no qualms about her qualifications because her program …
C
Deviations from standardized testing procedures a. do not affect scores unless the deviations are severe. b. should be avoided by an examiner regardless of the population in question. c. may be necessary for particular populations like the blind. d. can be avoided by never using tape …
C
When asking people to provide answers to sensitive health care questions, it might be better to a. conduct face-to-face interviews. b. use self-administered questionnaires. c. conduct telephone interviews. d. use younger males to conduct the interviews.
B
Test anxiety is an example of a(n) a. test variable. b. reactivity variable. c. expectancy variable. d. subject variable.
D
Which of the following is true of telephone questionnaires that use an electronically generated voice rather than a live person? a. Use of electronically-generated voices is superior because people do not worry about being judged, as they might when interviewed by a live person. b. Use …
D
The decrease in motivation among test takers due to random feedback is called a. experimenter bias. b. expectation error. c. learned helplessness. d. test anxiety.
C
The most controversial and misunderstood psychological tests are a. group tests. b. achievement tests. c. objective personality tests. d. projective personality tests.
D
The Barnum effect is found when a. statements that fits most of the case inflates validity. b. ambiguous responses are subjectively evaluated. c. participants who lack pathology are diagnosed as having pathology. d. a scale is not standardized.
A
Which individual played a major role in the use and investigation of Rorschach? a. Murray b. Klopfer c. Rogers d. Barnum
B
Which of the following is true of the Rorschach? a. It was treated with suspicion from the beginning. b. It is the most widely used psychological test. c. Recent scoring revisions have eliminated the most serious objections. d. It has finally become a widely accepted method in psycho…
A
The determinant types of the Rorschach are a. form, movement, color, and shading b. whole, common detail, and unusual detail c. excellent matching, average matching, and poor matching d. location, form quality, and content
A
Qualitative interpretation of the Rorschach is useful in a. estimating the skills of the administrator. b. specifying reliability. c. differentiating between normal and disordered conditions. d. determining whether the individual taking the test understands the instructions.
C
What are the content types of the Rorschach? a. positive and negative c. nature and nurture b. human, animal, and nature d. reality-based and fantasy-based
B
Adding information from the Rorschach to information from other sources does not improve diagnostic accuracy and may even decrease it. This indicates the lack of a. incremental validity. c. standardized scoring. b. reliability. d. relevance.
A
The two phases of Rorschach administration are called a. phase I and phase II. b. free response and determinant. c. free association and inquiry. d. associational and inquiry.
C
. Most researchers today feel that the Comprehensive System for scoring a. is an effective improvement to the Rorschach. b. has failed to remedy the problems associated with the Rorschach. c. still has a ways to go but at least provides adequate norms. d. makes improvements that allow…
B
The MMPI and MMPI-2 are a. true-false tests. b. multiple choice tests. c. subjective tests. d. fill-in-the-blanks tests.
A
The purpose of the MMPI and MMPI-2 is to a. assist in distinguishing normal from abnormal groups. b. evaluate normal personality. c. evaluate job satisfaction. d. evaluate vocational aptitude.
A
With the new MMPI-2 norms, T scores are considered significant if they are a. 65 or higher. b. 70 or higher. c. 75 or higher. d. 100 or higher.
A
The FB scale of the MMPI-2 measures a. random responding. b. family problems. c. health concerns. d. cooperation throughout the test.
D
Which of the following scales is related to faking good (falsely presenting yourself in a favorable way) on the MMPI? a. L b. F c. Pd d. Si
A
One problem that was not addressed in the MMPI-2 was a. sexist language. b. item overlap. c. outdated language. d. an adequate control group.
B
Raw scores on the MMPI are converted to standardized scores called a. Z scores. b. V scores. c. T scores. d. K scores.
C
To support the notion of g, Spearman developed a statistical technique called a. correlation. b. principle components. c. factor analysis. d. analysis of variance.
C
Which of the following is true about the 1905 Binet-Simon Scale? a. It employed the mental age concept. b. It contained 30 items, presented in random order. c. The normative sample consisted of only 10 children. d. It lacked an adequate measuring unit to express results.
A
According to Howard Gardner, intelligence is defined by multiple forms. He considered athletic, visual-spatial, logical -mathematical, naturalistic and verbal to name a few. To which two forms of intelligence, according to Gardner's model, do psychologists typically conform? They may not …
...
Which of the following needs was the impetus for the development of intelligence testing? a. classification of military recruits b. identification of high quality civil service recruits c. identification of individuals with intellectual disabilities d. creation of vocational and techn…
C
Binet's two major principles of test construction were a. general mental ability and age differentiation. b. reliability and validity. c. norms and standardization. d. age differentiation and age scale.
D
With the concept of general intelligence, a. Binet's search for tasks could be unrestricted. b. Binet was forced to ascertain the relative contribution of each element to the whole. c. the value of a task could be judged in terms of its correlation with the total score. d. each elemen…
C
. To support the notion of g, Spearman developed a statistical technique called a. correlation. b. principle components. c. factor analysis. d. analysis of variance.
C
According to the concept of general intelligence, a person's intelligence score actually represents a. differences in unique ability stemming from a specific task. b. the additive score on a broad variety of tasks. c. the shared variance underlying performance on a diverse set of tasks…
C
The separate subscale used to measure nonverbal intelligence in the Wechsler scale is called a(n) a. point scale. b. performance scale. c. memory scale. d. age scale.
B
Which of the following is not one of the WAIS-IV verbal scales? a. digit symbol-coding b. information c. similarities d. digit-span
A
Which of the following is a component of Wechsler's definition of intelligence? a. self-esteem b. emotional intelligence c. artistic talent d. capacity to act purposefully
D
. Scaled scores on the WAIS-IV have a mean of ____ and a standard deviation of ____. a. 10; 3 b. 50; 10 c. 100; 15 d. 100; 16
A
The FSIQ has a mean of ____ and standard deviation of ____. a. 10; 3 b. 100; 3 c. 100; 10 d. 100; 15
D

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